FOR INSTITUTION OF BANKING PERSONNEL SELECTION RECRUITMENT EXAMINATION
Publication No. 2, dated - 18th October 2011
Important Notice
The accessible version of this handbook is produced by the Xavier’s Resource Center for the Visually Challenged (www.xrcvc.org), Mumbai after seeking permission from Maharashtra State Bank Employees Federation.
This book’s accessible conversion was possible with the kind permission from Comrade Vishwas Utagi, General Secretary, MSBEF and Secretary, AIBEA.
A special thanks to Comrade Pradeep Malgi, Executive Member, Corporation Bank Employees Union (CBEU), an affiliated union to AIBEA and MSBEF which is a state level body of AIBEA. Pradeep Malgi, who is a visually impaired person, is a very active trade union leader of CBEU.
BANKING PERSONNEL TRAINING CENTRE
MAHARASHTRA STATE BANK EMPLOYEES FEDERATION
(Affiliated to All India Bank Employees Association)
Dadyseth House, 151 Floor, (Rear), Nanabahi Lane, Fort. Mumbai -400 023.
Phone no.: 22886187 /2287 2519 Fax: 2281 1547 E-mail: msbef@yahoo.com, msbefmumbai@rediffmail.com Gram: Bankflag
HANDBOOK ON MODEL PAPERS FOR IBPS RECRUITMENT EXAMINATION
Preface
Banking Personnel Training Centre (BPTC) is an institution formed on 1st January, 2011 by Maharashtra State Bank Employees Federation, an affiliate of All India Bank Employees Association.
BPTC is doing an immense service to the young candidates who are striving hard to knock the doors for bank jobs. Our first publication titled "HANDBOOK ON MODEL TEST PAPERS FOR BANKING RECRUITMENT EXAMINATION" was a big success. Hundreds of candidates joined BPTC training classes where very useful notes were provided, practice question papers were solved and very useful knowledge was imparted by experienced lecturers.
In the city of Mumbai and various other places in Maharashtra, our initiative has been widely responded and appreciated.
AIBEA is fighting for more jobs for Indian youth in Banking Industry. Our struggle for NO TO OUTSOURCING AND YES TO JOBS is a successful movement. Banking Industry shall have 5 lac new vacancies as around 3 lac bank men and women are retiring from public sector banks by 2020. AIBEA has been demanding regulated Banking Recruitment Board on the lines of UPSC or BSRB as it was prevailing in Banking Industry till the Government decided to stop recruitment.
Recently, the Banks have decided to place an indent of recruitment to IBPS twice in a year for a combined examination. Hence, bank jobs to some extent will get regulated. This will be a big opportunity for our youth to take up jobs in banks.
AIBEA fought for Bank Nationalisation and now AIBEA stands for strengthening and expanding Public Sector Banking Industry to achieve financial inclusion. Even as on today 60% people do not have bank accounts. AIBEA therefore has undertaken sustained campaigns to strengthen and expand public sector banks. AIBEA, Maharashtra State, has established BPTC to guide and identify itself with the youth who intend to take up jobs in banking industry.
Maharashtra State Bank Employees Federation is publishing one more Handbook based on the new contents like 50 Questions on Test of Reasoning, 50 Questions on Test of English Knowledge, 50 Questions on Test of Numerical Ability, 50 Questions on Test of General Awareness with Special Reference to Banking Industry and 50 Questions on Test of Computer Knowledge.
Our Second Publication is more relevant for the examination to be held on 27th November, 2011 by IBPS and subsequent examinations on this model. We are sure that like our first publication the candidates will welcome our second publication "HANDBOOK ON MODEL PAPERS FOR IBPS RECRUITMENT EXAMINATION". Our activists at all levels will reach out to the candidates who are appearing for the IBPS exams, through this book, notes and training classes.
We wish all success to the candidates who are appearing for IBPS exam. AIBEA and Banking Personnel Training Centre (BPTC) activists will remain present at all the centres and will guide the candidates.
With Diwali Greetings & Best Wishes for the IBPS Exam.
(VISHWAS UTAGI)
GENERAL SECRETARY
Mobile No. 9820147897
IBPS
COMMON WRITTEN EXAMINATION (CWE)
STUDY MATERIAL & OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
IBPS CLERK – Common Written Exam (CWE)
WRITTEN EXAMINATION STRUCTURE:
Sr. No. Name of Tests (Objective)
Number of Questions Maximum Marks Total Time
1 Test of Reasoning 50 50
2 Test of English Language 50 50
3 Test of Numerical Ability 50 50 150 minutes
4 Test of General Awareness with special reference to Banking Industry 50 50
5 Test of Computer Knowledge 50 50
Total 250 250
The above tests except the Test of English Language will be printed bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi.
Other detailed information regarding the written examination will be given in an Information Handout,, on IBPS website which will be made available for the- candidates to download along with the call letters.
PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS
There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If the total of the penalty for a test is in fraction, the marks obtained will be rounded off to the nearest integer, i.e. if fraction exceeds by 0.50 or more, it will be rounded off to next higher integer. If for any question a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong even if one of the given answers happens to be right and there will be the same penalty of 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question deducted as penalty. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
STANDARDISED SCORES
The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates will further be converted into standardized scores following Linear Conversion Method.
CUT-OFF SCORE
Each candidate will have, to secure a minimum standardized score in; each of the tests to qualify in the written examination and to be considered for vacancies in the participating banks, the cut-off points will be decided based on the average (Average one fourth Standard Deviation for General category candidates and Average – three fourth Standard Deviation for Reserved Category candidates).
CWE SCORE CARD
IBPS will print the Score Cards for each of the qualifying candidates only and will send the same by Registered/ Speed post to each candidate at the correspondence address specified in his/ her online application.
VALIDITY OF CWE SCORE CARD
Score Cards issued by IBPS will be valid for one year from the date of issue of the Score Card. Candidates can appear in subsequent examination^) to enhance their scores if they so desire.
Please note that candidates will not be permitted to appear for the Common Written Examination without the following documents:
(1) Call Letter
(2) Original fee payment receipt (fee payment challan/ NEFT Receipt/ e-receipt)
(3) Original photo-identity proof (specified)
(4) Photocopy of photo-identity proof
Test of Reasoning - Paper 1
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SPLENIC each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) One
(5) None of these
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) 84
(2) 76
(3) 56
(4) 24 (5) 94
3. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 82615943 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Two
(5) None of these
4. If 'x' means V, '+' means '+', means and '-' means V, then…..
2 - 50 + 40 x 10 * 96 =?
(1) 104
(2) 98
(3) 182
(4) 192
(5) None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the English alphabet and so, form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) HL
(2) NR
(3)TX
(4) BG
(5) DH
6. In a certain code BELOW is written as FCKVN. How is GIVEN written in that code?
(1) JHWMD
(2) HJUMD
(3) JHMUD
(4) JHUMD
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 7 to 11): Study carefully the following arrangement of letters, digits and symbols and answer the questions given below: £LMP 2 = 3 VD? 9 C F @t4NT$7W?HK6
7. How many such symbols are there in the arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a digit?
(1) Nil
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) None of these
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the position of their elements in die arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) LM = £
(2) 9F4*
(3) VDC3
(4) *4$@
(5) 7WK$
9. If all the digits are removed from the arrangement, then which of the following will be the 6th to the left of the 14th element from the left end?
(1)?
(2) D
(3) C
(4) V
(5) None of these
10. If all the letters are removed from the arrangement, then which of the following will be the 8th to the right of the 13th element from the right end?
(1) 4
(2) *
(3) $
(4) @
(5) None of these
11. Tvl = 2': ^9*' in the arrangement in the same way as *@N4':?
(1) $?7
(2) TW7
(3) TW$
(4) 7HW
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 12 to 16): Study carefully the following information and answer the questions given below:
(i) Seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circle and are facing the center.
(ii) G is third to the left of A.
(iii) F is third to the left of B.
(iv) D is not the neighbour of G.
(v) C is the neighbour of A.
(vi) B is to the immediate left of A.
12. Which of the following pairs has its first member sitting to the immediate right of the second member?
(1) EB
(2) AC
(3) DC
(4) GE
(5) None of these
13. What is the position of E?
(1) To the immediate right of B
(2) Between G and F
(3) Third to the right, of C
(4) To the immediate right of G
(5) None of these
14. Which of the following is TRUE?
(1) D is to the immediate left of C
(2) F is to the immediate right of G
(3) A is between B and C
(4) C is between D and F
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following pairs has its 2nd member sitting to the immediate right of the first member?
(1) FD
(2) GF
(3) AB
(4) FC
(5) None of these
16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?
(1) A is 4th to the right of F
(2) B is to the immediate left of E
(3) C is 3rd to the left of G
(4) D is 4th to the right of E
(5) None of these
17. M is father of N. L is brother of M. P is mother of L. How is N related to P?
(1) Grandson
(2) Nephew
(3) Granddaughter
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
18. In a certain code FROM is written as #$52 and BASE is written as %7?@. How is SOME written in that code?
(1) 5?2@
(2)?5@2
(3) ?52%
(4)?52@
(5) None of these
19. In a row of 40 children facing North, Satish is eighth to the right of Ajay. If Ajay is 18th from the right end of the row, how far is Satish from the left end of the row?
(1) 32nd
(2) 10th
(3) 31st
(4) 29th
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 20 to 24): In each of these questions given below, a group of digits is given followed by four combinations of letters/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the group of digits based on the letter/, symbol codes and the conditions given below. If none of the four combinations represents the gtoup of digits correctly, give (5) i.e. 'None of these* as the answer.
Digit: 3 Qs 9 6 2 8 7 5 4 1
Letter/Symbol: M=S @ P A D V *
Conditions for coding the group of digits:
(i) If the first digit is odd and last digit is even, the codes for the first and the last digits are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded by the code for last digit.
(iii) If the first as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as tX>.
20. 834762
(1) PMVASP
(2) PMVAS®
(3) @MVASP
(4) @ MVAS@
(5) None of these
21. 285961
(1) @PD=S*
(2) @AD=S*
(3) @PV=S*
(4) @PD=SV
(5) None of these
22. 972486
(1) =A@VPS
(2) SA@VP=
(3) SD@VP=
(4) SA@*P=
(5) None of these
23. 748956
(1) AVP=DS
(2) SVP=DS
(3) AVP=DA
(4) S*P=DA
(5) None of these
24. 785291
(1) APD@*X
(2) APD@=X
(3) XPD@=X
(4) XPD@=*
(5) None of these
25. In a certain code TURE' is written as 'QVQD' and 'COPE' is written as T>POD'. How is
(2) VGDM
(3) XTDM
(4) VGFO
(5) None of these
26. After arranging the letters of the word DIAL' in alphabetical order, each letter is substituted by the next second letter in the English alphabet. What will be the resultant form of the word?
(1) NKFC
(2) CFKN
(3) CGKN
(4) CFKO
(5) None of these
27. If 'A' is denoted by '2\
(2) 90
(3) 100
(4) 102
(5) None of these
28. Which of the following indicates similar relationship as 'LOVE' has with •VOEL?
(1) DIVE: IVED
(2) SAKE: KASE
(3) LIME: ELMI
(4) TUNE: UNET
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 29 to 32): These questions are based on the following numbers:
385 472 961 528 284
29. If the first and the third digits of each number are interchanged and the set of numbers thus obtained is arranged in the ascending order, which number will be second?
(1) 385
(2) 284
(3) 528
(4) 472
(5) 961
30. If for each number, the 1st digit becomes the 2nd digit, the 2nd digit becomes the 3rd digit and the 3rd digit becomes the 1st digit, then which number in the new set of numbers will be the lowest?
(1) 472
(2) 961
(3) 528
(4) 284
(5) 385
31. If 'V is subtracted from the first digit and "I' is added to the middle digit of each number, which number will be the lowest?
(1) 385
(2) 472
(3) 284
(4) 528
(5) 961
32. If the first and the second digits of each number are interchanged and the new set of numbers thus obtained is arranged in descending order, which number will be second?
(1) 284
(2) 385
(3) 472
(4) 461
(5) 528
Directions (Questions. 33 to 36): Each of these questions consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and—
Give answer
(1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) if the data in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
33. What is Hemants rank kfthe class of 40 students?
I. Sudha is 5 ranks below Hemant in the class.
II. Suresh, who is 10 ranks ahead of Sudha, is 25th from the bottom in the class.
34. What is the code for 'clever'?
I. 'very clever boy' is coded as le pa na’.
II. 'boys are very quick' is coded as 'se pe ne le'.
35. Who is the oldest among A, B, C, D & E?
I. A and B are older than E and D.
II. B, who is older than A, D and E, is not the oldest.
36. 'M' is in which direction with respect to 'N'?
I. 'M' is to the West of 'P' and to the North of 'O'. *N' is to the West of T' and to the East-North of 'O'.
II. 'P' who is to the East-North of 'O' is to the east of M and N.
Directions (Questions. 37 to 40): In each of these questions below are given three Statements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given Statements to be true even if they, seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given
Conclusions logically follows from the given Statements disregarding commonly known facts.
37. Statements:
Some buds are leaves. No leaf is fruit. Some fruits are buds. Conclusions:
I. Some fruits are leaves.
II. All buds are fruits.
III. Some leaves are buds.
(1) Only I or II follow
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) None follows
(5) None of these
38. Statements:
Some birds are animals. All animals are rivers. Some rivers are lions. Conclusions:
I. Some lions are animals.
II. Some rivers are birds.
III. No animal is lion.
(1) Only II follows
(2) Only either I or III follows
(3) Only II & III follow
(4) II and either I or III follow
(5) None of these
39. Statements:
Some cycles are buses. All cars are buses. Some buses are trains. Conclusions:
I. All cars are cycles.
II. Some trains are buses. III. Some trains are cars.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
40. Statements:
All pencils are sticks. Some sticks are notes. All diaries are notes. Conclusions:
I. Some notes are diaries.
II. Some sticks are pencils.
III. Some diaries are sticks.
(1) All follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only I and II follow
(4) Only II follows
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 41 to 50): In each of these questions given below, which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?
41. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
42. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
43. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
44. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
5
45. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
46. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
49. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
50. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
1. (2): LEN, LENI ANSWERS
2. (5): All others are divisible by 4.
3. (1): Reversed digits arranged in ascending order.
12 3 4 5 6 8 9
Pairs in the original number which have as many digits between them as in the new order are (2, 5), (1, 4) and (4, 3) i.e. three pairs.
4. (4): Putting the actual symbols the given equation reduces to 2 x 50 - 40 * 10 + 96 = 100 - 4 + 96 = 192
5. (4): In all others the first letter moves +4 steps.
6. (4)
7. (2): W? H
8. (2): In all others the sequence is +1, +3, and -5
(Position of the element)
9. (1): When all the digits are removed, the arrangement becomes £LMP = VD*CF@N 1 $ W? H
The 14th from the left end is T and 6th to the left of T is *.
10. (1): When all the letters are removed the arrangement becomes £2 = 3*9- @ + 4$7*? 6 13th elements from the right end are £. 8th element to the right of £ is 4.
11. (5): It should be S? W (Each element of first set moves +5 steps) 12-16: From the given conditions, the sitting arrangement will be:
Diagram
12. (3)
13. (4)
14. (3)
15. (5)
16. (2)
17. (4): Sex of N is not given
18. FROM-* #'$ 52 BASE % 7? @ = > SOME ->? 52@
19. (3)
20. (4): Here the first as well as the last digit is even, so condition (ii) applies.
834762 @MVAS@
21. (1): 285961 -> @PD=S* Here none of the conditions applies, so letters are directly coded.
22. (2): Here first digit is odd and the last one is even, so condition (i) is applied. 972486 -> SA@VP=
23. (5): Here condition (i) is applicable 748956 - SVP=DA
24. (3): Here condition (iii) is applicable 785291 - XPD@=X
25. (3): The first two letters move +1 step while last two letters move —1 step.
26. (2): DIAL, when arranged in alphabetical order, becomes ADIL.
ADIL - CFKN
27. (3): A -> 2 B -> 4 C -> 6 O -> 30 W -> 46 L = 24
OWL = 30 + 46 + 24 = 100
28. (5):
29. (4): When first and third digits of each number are interchanged, the numbers become 583, 274, 169, 825, 482 Arranged in ascending order 169, 274, 482, 583, and 825
30. (2): As per given condition, the numbers become 538, 247, 196, 852, 428
31. (3): The new numbers are 295, 383, 871, 438, and 194
32. (1): New numbers 835, 742, 691, 258, 824
Arranged in descending order
835, 824, 742, 691, 258
33. (5)
34. (4)
35. (2): (II) - C > B A, D, E
36. (1)
37. (4)
38. (4)
39. (5)
40. (3)
41. (5)
42. (5)
43. (3)
44. (1)
45. (2)
46. (2)
47. (1)
48. (3)
49. (5)
50. (2)
Test of Reasoning - Paper 2
1. If 'Blue' is called 'Green', 'Green' is called 'White', *White' is called 'Red' and 'Red' is called Yellow', then what will be the colour of milk?
(1) White
(2) Green
(3) Yellow
(4) Red
(5) None of these
2. M is towards South of B. B is towards West of N. N is towards which direction from M?
(1) North
(2) East
(3) North-East
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
3. In a certain code AUDIT is written as 2*67$ and PUB is written as 8*5. How is BUT written in that code?
(1) 56$
(2) 5*$
(3) 57$
(4) 6*$
(5) None of these
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MERIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3). Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
5. Wall' is related to 'Brick' in the same way as 'Book' is related to
(1) Page
(2) Binding
(3) Novel
(4) .Story
(5) Author
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 13
(2) 43
(3) 53
(4) 73
(5) 33
7. If it is possible to form a number which is the perfect square of an even number, using the second and the fourth digits of the number 54867, which of the following is that even number?
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) There is no such number
(5) None of these
8. In a certain code JUNGLE is written as ITMFKD. How is NORM written in that code?
(1) MNQL
(2) OPSN'
(3) MPQN
(4) ONSL
(5) None of these
9. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters IEST using each letter only once in each word?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
(5) None of these
10. Varun is older than Jayesh. Dinesh is younger than Haresh. Suresh is older than Varun but younger than Dinesh. Who among them is die oldest?
(1) Jayesh
(2) Haresh
(3) Dinesh
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the English alphabet and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) BD
(2) MO
(3) QS
(4) FI
(5) TV
12. Four of the following five are alike * in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 16
(2) 25
(3) 36
(4) 289
(5) 264
13. Suresh is five ranks below top student Samir in a class of forty students. What is Suresh's rank from the bottom in the class?
(1) 34th
(2) 36th
(3) 33rd
(4) 35th
(5) None of these
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Whale
(2) Crocodile
(3) Frog
(4) Snake
(5) Fish
15. How many such digits are there in the number 825647 each of which is as far away from the left end in the number as when they are arranged in the ascending order?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) "Three
(4) Four
(5) Five
16. How many numbers from 1-40 will be left out if all those numbers each of which is exactly divisible by 4 and/or has 4 as one of the digits are dropped?
(1) 27
(2) 30
(3) 31
(4) 28
(5) None of these
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Violet
(2) Blue
(3) Green
(4) Grey
(5) Yellow
18. T says, 'M is sitting opposite to me'; R says, *N is sitting towards right of T\ If both of them are right and they are sitting at the four sides of a rectangular table, who is sitting towards right of N?
(1) T
(2) R
(3) T or R
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
19. If the consonants in the word DROVE are first arranged alphabetically and the vowels are put in between two pairs of consonants in the alphabetical order, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the rearrangement?
(1) D
(2) E
(3) R
(4) O
(5) None of these
20. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, Prakash, when shifted by four places towards his right, becomes tenth from the right end. What was his original position from the left end?
(1) 10th
(2) 8th
(3) 11th
(4) 9th
(5) None of these
Direction (Qs. 21-23): Answer these questions based on the following information.
(i) ‘P x Q’ means 'P is divided by Q’.
(ii) ‘P- Q' means ‘Q is added to P’.
(iii) 'P + Q’ means ‘Q is subtracted from P’.
(iv) ‘P + Q' means «P is multiplied by Q'.
21. What will be the value of 18-6-8x4?
(1) 22
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 4
(5) None of these
22. What will be the value of 20 -f- 10 + 8?
(1) 18
(2) -6
(3) 2
(4) 10
(5) None of these
23. If 16 + 4 x M = 8, then what will be the value of M?
(1). 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 12
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 24-28): Study the following information carefully and answer these questions given below: In one floor of a building, there are eight flats—A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in two rows. One row of flats faces North and the other row faces South. D is exactly opposite of F which faces North. Neither A nor C faces South. A is not at any of the ends and is second to the left of F. E is exactly opposite of B which faces South. G is third to the right of D.
24. Which of the following pairs of flats facing South are at the two ends?
(1) GD
(2) GH
(3) BH
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
25. Which flat is exactly opposite of flat H?
(1) E
(2) A
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
26. Which of the following group of flats faces South?
(1) BGCF
(2) BGHA
(3) EACF
(4) GHDC
(5) None of these
27. Which of the following pairs of flats facing North are at the two ends?
(1) EA
(2) EC
(3) CF
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
28. Which flat is exactly opposite of flat C?
(1) H
(2)D
(3)B
(4) G
(5) Cannot be determined
Directions (Qs. 29 to 35): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
P I $ M T % R E D * N U # K B © F A W @ H V J
29. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between F and R?
(1) #
(2) N
(3) K
(4) U
(5) None of these
30. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of E in the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) P
(3) B
(4) #
(5) None of these
31. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the ninth from the left end?
(1) %
(2) K
(3) B
(4) R
(5) None of these
32. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) Five
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on dieir positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) ER
(2) #K
(3) ©B
(4) FA
(5) WH
34. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right end?
(1)?
(2) F
(3) N
(4) A
(5) None of these
35. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) Five
Directions (Qs. 36 to 45): In each of these questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
36. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
37. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
38. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
39. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
40. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
41. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
42. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
43. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
44. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
45. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
Directions (Qs. 46 to 50): The second figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark.
46. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
49. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
50. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
ANSWERS
1. (4)
2. (3)
3. (2) A U D I T PUB
8 * 6 7 $ 8 * 5
B U T 5 * &
4. (2) R (I) T
5. (1)
6. (5) All others are prime numbers
7. (1) Second and fourth digits are 4 & 6.
64=82
8. (1) The sequence is -1 step.
9. (1) TIES, SITE
10. (2) V > J, D < H, S > V, S < D
H > D > S > V > J
11. (4) In all others one letter is missing between the given two letters.
12. (5) All others are perfect squares.
13. (4) 14. (4)
15. (2) 825647
Arranging in ascending order 245678
Digits 5 and 6 are required digits
16. (4) Dropped numbers are:
4, 8, 12, 14, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 34, 36, 40
17. (4)
(Diagram)
18. (5)
19. (2) DEROV
20. (5) 12th
21. (1) 18 - 6 - 8 x 4
Using proper symbols = 18 + 6- 8 + 4. = 18 + 6-2 = 22
22. (5) 20 - 10 + 8 = 20 - 10 x 8
= 20-80 = -60
23. (2) 16 x 4/M = 8M=16x4/8=8
For Qs. 24-28:
(Diagram)
24. (1)
25. (2)
26. (5)
27. (3)
28. (4)
29. (4)
30. (3)
31. (2)
32. (2) 1$, U#
33. (5)
35. (4) T%, D*, B©, W@
36. (3)
37. (5)
38. (4)
39. (1)
40. (4)
41. (2)
42. (4)
43. (2)
44. (1)
45. (2)
46. (4)
47. (3)
48. (1)
49. (5)
50. (2)
Test of Reasoning - Paper 3
1. In a class of forty students, Samir's rank from the top is twelfth. Alok is eight ranks below Samir. What is Alok's rank from the bottom?
(1) 20th
(2) 21st
(3) 22nd
(4) 19th
(5) None of these
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Jowar
(2) Paddy
(3) Millet
(4) Wheat
(5) Sesame
3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOLDEN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
4. In a certain code DAYLONG is written as ZBEKHOP. How is CORDIAL written in that code?
(1) SPDCMBJ
(2) SPDEMBJ
(3) DPSCMBJ
(4) SPDCJBM
(5) None of these
5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, the seventh, the eighth and the tenth letters of the word PREDICAMENT, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give *X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give 'V as the answer.
(1) M
(2) N
(3) E
(4) X
(5)Y
6. If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement?
(1) N
(2) Q
(3) J
(4) M
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that dbes not belong to that group?
(1) March
(2) January
(3) July
(4) June
(5) May
8. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest?
(1) M
(2) R
(3) M or R
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
9. The positions of how many digits in the number 7354612 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. If ‘M' means ‘V \ *R* means '+', T means and 'K' means ' x then…… 20 R 16 K 5 M 10 T 8 =?
(1) 36
(2) 20
(3) 36.5
(4) 12
(5) None of these
11. In a certain code ROBE is written as '5136' and BIND is written as '3792'. How is RIDE written in that code?
(1) 5276
(2) 5726
(3) 5376
(4) 5326
(5) None of these
12. Pravin walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?
(1) 30 metres
(2) 80 metres
(3) 50 metres
(4) 20 metres
(5) None of these
13. In a certain code 'good and bad' is written as "I 2 5'; 'one and all' is written is '9 3 2' and 'this is good' is written as "I 5 4'. How is 'one' written in that code?
(1) 9
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
14. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ENAL using each letter only once in each word?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
15. Which of the following will be the middle digit of the second lowest number among the five numbers given below?
317 528 439 254 861 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
(4) 5 (5) 6
16. 'BEAN' is related to
(2) ELM
(3) EIML
(4) EILM
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 17 to 23): In each of these questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I & II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer—
(1) If only Conclusion I follows.
(2) If only Conclusion II follows.
(3) If either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows.
(4) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
(5) If both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow.
17. Statements:
All poles are lights. All lights are bulbs. All bulbs are tubes. Conclusions:
I. All tubes are poles.
II. Some bulbs are poles.
18. Statements:
All tyres are wheels. Some wheels are desks. All desks are plates. Conclusions:
I. Some plates are wheels.
II. Some plates are tyres.
19. Statements:
Some kites are threads. Some threads are sticks. All sticks are umbrellas. Conclusions:
I. Some kites are umbrellas.
II. Some umbrellas are thread.
20. Statements:
Some flowers are trees. No tree is room. Some rooms are hotels. Conclusions:
I. Some hotels are flowers.
II. Some rooms are flowers. •
21. Statements:
All jackets are shirts. All shirts are trousers. No trouser is bag. Conclusions:
I. No jacket is bag.
II. No bag is shirt.
22. Statements:
Some blades are knives. Some knives are tables. All books are tables. Conclusions:
I. Some books are knives.
II. Some books are blades.
23. Statements:
All windows are houses. All roads are houses. Some houses are hills. Conclusions:
I. Some hills are windows.
II. No hill is window. Directions (Questions. 24 to 30): Study
the following arrangement carefully and answer these questions.
R4EJ5T1AMQ38N IK7WF6D9U2YV
24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1)J54
(2) 38M
(3)7WI
(4) 2Y9
(5) 8IQ
25. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
26. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between A and D in the above arrangement?
(1) I
(2) N
(3) K
(4) 8
(5) None of these
28. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the left of D?
(1) T
(2) A
(3) V
(4) J
(5) None of these
29. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the eleventh from the left end of the above arrangement?
(1) M
(2) 9
(3) W
(4) 5
(5) None of these
30. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right end of die above arrangement?
(1) 8
(2) D
(3) I
(4) T
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 31 to 35): Study the following information carefully and answer these questions.
P, Q, R, S, T and V are six students studying in a class. Each of them has a different height and weight. The tallest is not the heaviest. T is taller than only P but lighter than R. Q is taller than S and P and heavier than only T and V. P is lighter than only S. T is heavier than V. S is taller than V and Q is not the tallest.
31. How many of them are heavier than T?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Five
(5) None of these
32. How many of them are shorter than Q?
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
(5) None of these
33. Who among them is tallest?
(1) V
(2) P
(3) T
(4) R
(5) None of these
34. Who among them is third from top if arranged in descending order of height?
(1)Q
(2)V
(3) S
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
35. Who among them is lightest?
(1) V
(2) T
(3) P
(4) R
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 36 to 40): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P © Q' means «P is smaller than Q\ 'P @ Q' means 'P is either smaller than or equal to Q\
'P % Q' means T is greater than Q\ *P $ Q' means 'P is either greater than or equal to Q\
*P * Q' means «P is equal to Q\ Now in each of these questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true? Give answer
(1) if only Conclusion I is true.
(2) if only Conclusion II is true.
(3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
(4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
36. Statements:
B © T, T * M, M % F
Conclusions:
I. B © M II. B © F
37. Statements:
M? R, R % T, T $ K
Conclusions:
I. K @ M II. K © M
38. Statements:
W© D, D @ H, H * N
Conclusions:
I. N $ D II. W © N
39. Statements:
W@D, D$R,R©K
Conclusions:
I. R * W II. R % W
40. Statements:
F $ J, J % V, V © N
Conclusions:
I. N $ F IL N % J
Directions (Questions. 41 to 50): In each of these questions given below, which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?
41. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
42. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
43. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
44. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
45. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
46. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
49. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
50. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
ANSWERS
1. (2)
3. (3): G (OL) D, DE,
2. (5)
4. (1)
5. (5): EAMN
NAME
MEAN
6. (3): W O R K I N G
X N S J J M
7. (4): All others have 31 days
8. (1)
9. (4): 7 3 5 4 6 1 2
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
10. (2): 20 + 16 x 5 / 10 - 8
= 20 + 16 x 5/10 – 8 = 20
11. (2)
12. (4)
13. (4)
14. (3): LANE LEAN ELAN
15. (1): Second lowest number is 317
16. (3)
17. (2)
18. (1)
19. (2)
20. (4)
21. (5)
22. (4)
23. (3)
24. (5)
25. (3): E, A
26. (3): 1, 3, 9
27. (1)
28. (1)
29. (4)
30. (2)
Questions. 31 to 35
Height
R > Q > S > V > T > P
Weight
S > P > R > Q > T > V
31. (5): Four
32. (2)
33. (4)
34. (3)
35. (1)
36. (1)
37. (2)
38. (5)
39. (4)
40. (5)
41. (5)
42. (2)
43. (2)
44. (1)
45. (1)
46. (4)
47. (1)
48. (3)
49. (1)
50. (4)
Test of Reasoning - Paper 4
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SPLENIC each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet ?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) One
(5) None of these
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(1) 84
(2) 76
(3) 56
(4) 24
(5) 94
3. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 82615943 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number ?
(1) Three
(2) One.
(3) Four
(4) Two
(5) None of these
4. If V means V, V means '+', means '-' and means V, then…….
2 - 50 + 40 x 10 + 96 = ?
(1) 104
(2) 98
(3) 182
(4) 192
(5) -None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the English alphabet and so, form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) HL
(2) NR
(3) TX
(4) BG
(5) DH
6. In a certain code BELOW is written as FCKVN. How is GIVEN written in that code ?
(1) JHWMD
(2) HJUMD
(3) JHMUD
(4) JHUMD
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 7 to 11) : Study carefully the following arrangement of letters, digits and symbols and answer the questions given below :
£LMP2=3VD* 9CF @ ± 4 NT $ 7 W ? H K 6
7. How many such symbols are there in the arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a digit ?
(1) Nil
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) None of these
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the position of their elements in the arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(1) LM = £
(2) 9F4*
(3) VDC3
(4) +4$@
(5) 7WK$
9. If all the digits are removed from the arrangement, then which of the following will be the 6th to the left of the 14th element from the left end ?
(1) *
(2) D
(3) C
(4) V
(5) None of these
10. If all the letters are removed from the arrangement, then which of the following will be the 8th to the right of the 13th element from the right end ?
(1) 4
(2) /
(3) $
(4) @
(5) None of these
11. 'M = 2': W9* k’ in the arrangement in the same way as '@N4' : ?
(1) $?7
(2) TW7
(3) TW$
(4) 7HW
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 12 to 16) : Study carefully the following information and answer the questions given below:
(i) Seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circle and are facing the center.
(ii) G is third to the left of A.
(iii) F is third to the left of B.'
(iv) D is not the neighbour of G.
(v) C is the neighbour' of A.
(vi) B is to the immediate left of A.
12. Which of the following pairs has its first member sitting to the immediate right of the second member ?
(1) EB
(2) AC
(3) DC
(4)'GE
(5) None of these
13. What is the position of E ?
(1) To the immediate right of B
(2) Between G and F
(3) Third to the right of C
(4) To the immediate right of G
(5) None of these
14. Which of the following is TRUE ?
(1) D is to the immediate left of C
(2) F is to the immediate right of G
(3) A is between B and C
(4) C is between D and F
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following pairs has its 2nd member sitting to the immediate right of the first member ?
(1) FD
2) GF
(3) AB
(4) FC
(5) None of these
16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE ?
(1) A is 4th to. the right of F
(2) B is to the immediate left of E
(3) C is 3rd to the left of G
(4) D is 4th to the right of E
(5) None of these
17. M is father of N. L is brother of M. P is mother of L. How is N related to P ?
(1) Grandson
(2) Nephew
(3) Granddaughter
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
18. In a certain code FROM is written as #$52 and BASE is written as %7?@. How is SOME written in that code ?
(1) 5?2@
(2) ?5@2
(3) ?52%
(4) ?52@
(5) None of these
19. In a row of 40 children facing North, Satish is eighth to the right of Ajay. If Ajay is 18th from the right end of the row, how far is Satish from the left end of the row ?
(1) 32nd
(2) 10th
(3) 31st
(4) 29th
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 20 to 24) : In each of these questions given below, a group of digits is given followed by four combinations of letters/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the group of digits based on the letter/ symbol codes and the conditions given below. If none of the four combinations represents/the group of digits correctly, give (5) i.e. 'None of these' as the answer. Digit: 3 9 6 2 8 7 5 4 1
Letter/Symbol :M=S@PADV* Conditions for coding the group of digits :
(i) If the first digit is odd and last digit is even, the codes for the first and the last digits are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded by the code for last digit.
(iii) If the first as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as 'X'.
20. 834762
(1) PMVASP
(2) PMVAS@
(3) @MVASP
(4) @ MVAS@
(5) None of these
21. 285961
(1) @PD=S*
(2) @AD=S*
(3) @PV=S*
(4) @PD=SV
(5) None of these
22. 972486
(1) =A@VPS
(2) SA@VP=
(3) SD@VP=
(4) SA@* P=
(5) None of these
23. 748956
(1) AVP=DS
(2) SVP=DS
(3) AVP=DA
(4) S* P=DA
(5) None of these
24. 785291
(1) APD@* X
(2) APD@=X
(3) XPD@=X
(4) XPD@=*
(5) None of these
25. In a certain code TURE' is written as 'QVQD' and 'COPE' is written as 'DPOD'. How is 'WHEN' written in that code ?
26. After arranging the letters of the word 'DIAL' in alphabetical order, each letter is substituted by the next second letter in the English alphabet. What will be the resultant form of the word ?
(1) NKFC
(2) CFKN
(3) CGKN (4)CFKO
(5) None of these
27. If 'A' is denoted by '2\ 'B' by '4', 'C by '6' and so on, then what will be the sum of the numeric values of the letters of the word 'OWL?
(1) HO
(2) 90
(3) 100
(4) 102
(5) None of these
28. Which of the following indicates similar relationship as 'LOVE' has with * VOEL'?
(1) DIVE : IVED
(2) SAKE : KASE
(3) LIME : ELMI
(4) TUNE : UNET
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 29 to 32) : These questions are based on the following numbers :
385 472 961 528 284/
29. If the first and the third digits of each number are interchanged and the set of numbers thus obtained is arranged in the ascending order, which number will be second?
(1) 385
(2) 284
(3) 528
(4) 472
(5) 961
30. If for each number, the 1st digit becomes the 2nd digit, the 2nd digit becomes the 3rd digit and the 3rd digit becomes the 1st digit, then which number in the new set of numbers will be the lowest ?
(1) 472
(2) 961
(3) 528
(4) 284
(5) 385
31. If T is subtracted from the first digit and "I' is added to the middle digit of each number, which number will be the lowest ?
(1) 385
(2) 472
(3) 284
(4) 528
(5) 961
32. If the first and the second digits of each number are interchanged and the new set of numbers thus obtained is arranged in descending order which number will be second?
(1) 284
(2) 385
(3) 472
(4) 461
(5) 528
Directions (Questions. 33 to 36) : Each of these questions consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and—
Give answer
(1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) if the data in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
33. What is Hemant's rank in the class of 40 students ?
I. Sudha is 5 ranks below Hemant in the class.
II. Suresh, who is 10 ranks ahead of Sudha, is 25 th from the bottom in die class.
34. What is the code for 'clever'?
I. 'very clever boy' is coded as 'le pa na’.
II. 'boys are very quick' is coded as 'se pe ne le'.
35. Who is oldest among A, B, C D & E ? . .
I. A and B are older than E and D.
II. B, who is older than A, D and E, is not the oldest.
36. 'M' is in which direction with respect to 'N' ?
I. * M' is to the West of 'P' and to the North of 'O'. 'N' is to the West of 'P' and to the East-Norui of 'O'.
II. 'P' who is to the East-North of 'O' is to the east of M and N.
Directions (Questions. 37 to 40) : In each of these questions below are given three Statements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given Statements disregarding commonly known facts.
37. Statements :
Some buds are leaves.
No leaf is fruit.
Some fruits are buds.
Conclusions :
I. Some fruits are leaves.
II. All buds are fruits.
III. Some leaves are buds.
(1) Only I or II follow
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) None follows
(5) None of these
38. Statements :
Some birds are animals. All animals are rivers. Some rivers are lions. Conclusions :
I. Some lions are animals.
II. Some rivers are birds.
III. No animal is lion.
(1) Only II follows
(2) Only either I or III follows
(3) Only II & III follow
(4) II and either I or III follow
(5) None of these
39. Statements :
Some cycles are buses. All cars are buses. Some buses are trains. Conclusions :
I. All cars are cycles.
II. Some trains are buses.
III. Some trains are cars.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
40. Statements :
All pencils are sticks. Some sticks are notes. All diaries are notes. Conclusions :
I. Some notes are diaries.
II. Some sticks are pencils.
III. Some diaries are sticks.
(1) All follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only I and II follow
(4) Only II follows
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 41 to 50) : In each of these questions given below, which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued ?
41. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
42. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
43. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
44. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
45. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
46. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
49. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
50. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
ANSWERS
1. (2): LEN, LENI
2. (5): All others are divisible by 4.
3. (1): Reversed digits arranged in ascending order.
1 2 3 4 5 6 8 9
Pairs in the original number which have as many digits between them as in the new order are (2, 5), (1, 4) and (4, 3) i.e. three pairs.
4. (4): Putting the actual symbols the
given equation reduces to 2 x 50 - 40 + 10 + 96 = 100 - 4 + 96 = 192
5. (4): In all others the first letter moves +4 steps.
6. (4)
7. (2): W ? H
8. (2): In all others the sequence is
+1, +3, -5
(Position of the element)
9. (1): When all the digits are removed,
the arrangement becomes £ L M P = V D * C F @ t N T $ W ? H
The 14th from the left end is T and 6th to the left of T is ?.
10. (1): When all the letters are removed
the arrangement becomes £2 = 3* 9@ + 4$l?6 13th element from the right end is £. 8th element to the right of £ is 4.
11. (5): It should be S ? W
(Each element of first set moves +5 steps) 12-16 : From the given conditions, the sitting arrangement will be :
(Diagram)
12. (3) 13.(4) 14.(3) 15.(5) J6..(2)
17. (4): Sex of N is not given
18. (4): FROM # $ 52
BASE % 7 ? @ =>
SOME ? 52@
19. (3)
20. (4): Here the first as well as the last
digit is even, so condition (ii) applies.
834762 @MVAS@
21. (1): 285961 @PD=S*
Here none of the conditions applies, so letters are directly coded.
22. (2): Here first digit is odd and the
last one is even, so condition (i) is applied. 972486 S A @ V P=
23. (5): Here condition (i) is applicable
748956 SVP=DA
24. (3): Here condition (iii) is applicable
785291 XPD@=X
25. (3): The first two letters move +1
step while last two letters move -1 step.
26. (2): DIAL, when arranged in
alphabetical order, becomes ADIL.
ADIL CFKN
27. (3): A —> 2
B 4
C 6 O 30
W 46
L = 24 .-. OWL = 30 + 46 + 24 = 100
28. (5)
29. (4): When first and third digits of each number are interchanged, the numbers become 583, 274, 169, 825, 482 Arranged in ascending order 169, 274, 482, 583, 825
30. (2): As per given condition, the numbers become
538, 247, 196, 852, 428
31. (3): The new numbers are
295, 383, 871, 438, 194
32. (1): New numbers
835, 742, 691, 258, 824 Arranged in descending order 835, 824, 742, 691, 258
33. (5)
34. (4).
35. (2): (II) => C > B > A, D, E
36. (1)
37. (4)
38. (4)
39. (5)
40. (3)
41. (5)
42. (5)
43. (3)
44. (1)
45.(2)
46.(2)
47.(1)
48.(3)
49. (5)
50. (2)
20
21
Test of Reasoning - Paper 5
1. The positions of first and the fourth letters of the word WORTHY are interchanged; similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is third from the right and die letter which is third from the left, in the English alphabetical order?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
2. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters UOT using each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (Questions. 3 <& 4): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
Point B is 4 m towards the North of point A.
Point E is 8 m towards the East of point B.
Point C is 5 m towards the East of point A.
Point D is 9 m towards the West of point C.
3. How far should one walk from point A in order to reach point D?
(1) 4 m
(2) 9 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 14 m
(5) 8 m
4. If a person walks 4 m towards the South from point. E and then walks after taking a right turn, which of the following points would he reach first?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) Cannot be determined
5. If each of the alphabets of the word COMPARE is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then each vowel in the new word thus formed is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series which of the following will be fifth from the right?
(1) F
(2) P
(3) L
(4) E
(5) O
6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORCES, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
7. In a certain code language 'Siberia is a cold place' is written as 'a cold is place Siberia', in the sa ae code, 'water freezes to ice here' is coded as 'freezes here ice to water'. Flow will 'covers ten percent of earth' be written in the same code?
(1) covers earth percent ten of
(2) earth of covers percent ten
(3) covers earth percent of ten
(4) covers earth of percent ten
(5) covers earth ten of percent
8. Which of the following will come in the place of question mark?
HIZ JYK XLM NOW?
(1) PQV
(2) QRV
(3) QWR
(4) VQP
(5) PVQ
9. Sneha, Avni, Dhruv and Parth participated in a game-show and each earned a different amount. Avni earned more than Parth but not more than Sneha. Dhruv earned less money than Sneha but more than Avni. Who amongst them earned the most?
(1) Parth
(2) Sneha
(3) Dhruv
(4) Avni
(5) Cannot be determined I
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Swimming
(2) Diving
(3) Fishing
(4) Driving
(5) Bathing
CHEMISTRY
PHYSICS
BIOLOGY
Directions (Questions. II to I J): Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. The diagram shows students studying either Physics, Chemistry, Biology or combinations of these subjects.
(Diagram)
11. In which of the following groups are the students studying all the three subjects included?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) None of these
12. Which of the following is not represented in the above diagram?
(1) The students who study Biology, Chemistry as well as Physics.
(2) The students who study Chemistry and Biology but not Physics.
(3) The students who do not study any of the three subjects.
(4) The students who study Biology but not Physics and Chemistry.
(5) The students who study Physics and Chemistry but not Biology.
13. If a lecture is being attended by students for group B and group F, together, on which of the following subjects could the lecture be?
(1) Chemistry or Biology
(2) Only Chemistry
(3) Only Biology
(4) Physics, Chemistry or Biology
(5) Only Physics
14. Which of the following correctly represents the students studying both Physics and Chemistry but not biology?
(1) Only C
(2) C and D
(3) C, D and F
(4) Only D
(5) Only F
15. Which of the following groups represents the students who do not study Chemistry?
(1) E and F
(2) Only A
(3) A, C and E
(4) D, C and F (5) A and E
Directions (Questions. 16 to 20): Following questions are based on five words given below: AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
16. If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
(1) SUM
(2) BIG
(3) Both BIG and THE
(4) FOR (5) Both FOR and BIG
17. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right?
(1) AND
(2) FOR
(3) THE
(4) BIG
(5) SUM
18. If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowel) will be formed?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
19. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
(1) Two
(2) Five
3) Six
(4) Nine
(5) Three
20. If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (Questions. 21 to 2J): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a circular table facing die centre.
(a) P sits second to left of T.
(b) Only two people sit between T and W
(c) Q sits third to the left of W
(d) V and Y are immediate neighbours of each other.
(e) Only one person sits between Y and R.
21. What is the position of R with respect to P?
(1) Third to the left
(2) Immediately to the right
(3) Second to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Immediately to the left
22. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, starting from P, the positions of how many (excluding P) will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating positions?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three.
(5) None of these
23. Who sits between Y and R? (1) W
(2) Q
(3) T
(4) P
(5) None of these
24. How many persons sit between S and V when counted in clockwise direction from S?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) QT
(2) YW
(3) SR
(4) WAS
(5) VP
Directions (Questions. 26 to 30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
7 6 1 7 9 2 4 1 5 6 4 9 2 3 4 1 2 5 8 5 8 4 8 3 1 2 7 5 2 6 7 2 9 5 3
26. How many 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a digit which has a numerical value of more than four?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
27. How many such Is are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
28. How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded and followed by an odd digit?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
29. Which of the following is third to the left of the eighteenth digit from the left end of the above arrangement?
(1) 8
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) 1
30. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be ninth from the right end of the arrangement?
(1) 9
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 5
(5) 7
Directions (Questions. 31 to 33): Read the statement given in each question carefully and answer the questions.
31. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression T > Q > R = S' is definitely true?
(1)S = Q
(2)R < P
(3) P>S
(4) R(5) None is true
32. Which of the following expressions will not be true if the expression 'J < K = L > M > H' is definitely true?
(1) L > 1
(2) K > M
(3) H < L
(4) J < M
(5) K > H
33. In which of the following expressions will the expression 'A > D' be definitely true?
(1) A < B < C = D
(2) D = B > C < A
(3) A < B = D > C
(4) D > B = C < A
(5) None is true
Directions (Questions. 34 & 3J): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
If A x B' means A is wife of B\ If A + B' means A is brother of B\ If A B' means A is daughter of B\ If A - B' means A is son of B\
34. Which of the following means 'D is father of A'?
(1) A-B x C + D
(2) D -s- C - B x A
(3) A + B - C x D
(4) D + B x C - A
(5) None of these
35. How is F related to J if 'F - G + H x J'?
(1) Son.
(2) Grandson
(3) Son-in-law
(4) Father
(5) Grandfather
Directions (Questions. 36 to 40): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by five combinations of number/symbol codes numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the gro'iip of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer.
Letters:
RBFCPQA IHKUTEWM Number/Symbol Code:
$ P 6 8 ? # % 2 © 4 7 9 @ 5 3
Conditions:
(i) If both the second and the fifth elements are vowels, the code for both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the third element is a .vowel and the fourth a consonant, the fourth element is to be coded as the code for the first element.
(iii) If the group of letters contains no vowel, the codes for the first and the last elements are to be interchanged.
36. FAWUCI
(1) 6%5782
(2) 2%5786
(3) 6857%2
(4) 6%5872
(5) 6%5682
37. UECTAP
(1)?%89@7
(2) 7@89%*
(3) 7%89@*
(4) 7%98@*
(5) 789%@*
38. TFAQIM
(1) 96%923
(2) 96%239
(3) 96%#23
(4) #6%#23
(5) #6%923
39. BWAFET
(1) p5%6@9
(2) p5%|3@9
(3) 65%6@9
(4) £5%p9@
(5) 65%p@9
40. HPKTMQ
(1) ©*493#
(2) #*349©
(3) ©*943#
(4) #*394©
(5) #*493©
Directions (Questions. 41 to JO): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?
41. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
42. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
43. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
44. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
45. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
46. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
49. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
50. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
ANSWERS
1. (2): Changing positions as required, we get WORTHY THYWOR Third from right end W Third from left end Y Letters between W and Y-*X OUT
2. (2): OUT
Questions. 3-4: (Diagram)
3. (1)
4. (3)
5. (1): COMPARE Alphabetical order ACEMOPR
Changing as required
B B E L P N Q
6. (3): 0 (RCE) S, F (OR) C,
7. (4): The first letter has been arranged in ascending order of alphabet.
8. (5)
9. (2)
10. (4)
11. (3)
12. (3)
13. (2)
14. (4)
15. (5)
16. (1): Changing as required.
AND ANE, FOR—> FOS, THE THF, BIG BIH, SUM SUN
Only meaningful word is SUN
17. (5): Arranging as required
AND BIG FOR SU.M THE
18. (3): AND AOD, FOR FPR,
THE TIE, BIG BIG, SUM > SVM. Words having two vowels: AOD, TIE
19. (2): BIG FOR
(I)JKLMN(0)
20. (4): AND BMC,
FOR EPQ, THE SGF, BIG AJF, SUM RVI. BMC, SGF, RVL
Questions. 21-25:
The seating arrangement is as follows: Q (T)
(Diagram)
22. (1): Changed position in brackets.
23. (2)
24. (3)
25. (1)
26. (5): 25, 27, 26, 29
27. (3): 41, 41
28. (2): 953
29. (3)
30. (4)
31. (2)
32. (4)
33. (5)
34. (3): A + B A is brother of B B C B is daughter of C
C x D C is wife of D =$ D is fadier of A
35. (2): F - G F is son of G
G H G is daughter of H H x J H is wife of J
36. (1): No condition is applicable.
37. (3): Condition (i) is applicable.
38. (1): Condition (ii) is applicable.
39. (2): Condition (ii) is applicable.
40. (5): Condition (iii) is applicable.
41. (3)
42. (3)
43. (2)
44. (4)
45. (3)
46. (5)
47. (1)
48. (2)
49. (5)
50. (4)
Test of Reasoning - Paper 6
1. Ravi cycles 3 km towards the east and takes the first right turn and cycles for another 5 km to point A. From point A he takes a left turn and cycles 1 km to point B, after covering another 4 km he rests for a while. How much distance has Ravi covered from point A till the time he stops?
(1) 16 km
(2) 11 km
(3) 19 km
(4) 15 km
(5) 8 km
2. The position of how many digits will remain the same if the digits in the number 2567394 are rearranged in ascending order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters IRA, using each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INTRUDE each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
5. If A means '+', B means 4x', C means '-' and D means then 12 B 8 C 6 D 2 A 4 =?
(1) 21
(2) 94
(3)84
(4) 97
(5) 90
6. If each of the vowels in the word HONESTLY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many of the following alphabets will remain unchanged? (from that of. before arranging in alphabetical order)
(i) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
7. 'AB* is related to *EF' in the same way as 7J' is related to
(l)'MN (2)-KL (3) OP
(4) LM (5) NO
8. A, B, C and D live in a building having 14 floors. A lives two floors above B. C Lives on the 14th floor immediately above A. D neither lives immediately above nor immediately below B. The . first 7 floors of the building are vacant. On which of the following floor does D live?
(1) 8th
(2) 10th
(3) 12th
(4) 9th
(5) Cannot be determined
9. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, third, eighth and ninth letters of the word ABDUCTION, which of the following would be the second letter of that word from the left end? If no such word can be made, give 'A' as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as 'Z'.
(1) A
(2) O
(3) N
(4) B
(5) Z
10. In a certain code 'AEROBIC is written as. 'BFQNAJD'. How is ADVERTS written in that code?
(1) BEQUDUT
(2) BUEDQUT
(3) BEUDQUT
(4) BEUQDUT
(5) BUEQDUT
Directions (Questions. 11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and' H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre and are equidistant from each other. D sits exactly between E and H. A is third to the left of G, and G sits opposite F. E is third to the left of G
11. How many people sit between E and B when counted in an anti-clockwise direction from B?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) Five
12. Who sits second to the left of C >> (1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) H
(5) G
13. In which of the following pairs, is the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person
(1) BC
(2) CA
(3) GB
(4) HD
(5) AF
14. If B: D then C:?
(1) E
(2) F
(3) G
(4) D
(5) H
15. What is the position of F with respect to B in the above arrangement?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Fourth to the right
(5) Immediate to the right Directions (Questions. 16-20): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 356 497 812 739 264
16. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order from left to right, which of the following will be the sum of all the three digits of the number which is second from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?
(1) 14
(2) 19
(3) 20
(4) 11
(5) 12
17. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the second lowest number is divided by the third digit of the highest number?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) 2.6
18. If '2' is subtracted from the last digit of every odd number and T is added to the last digit of every even number, what will be the difference between the highest and the lowest numbers thus formed?
(1) 380
(2) 456
(3) 318
(4) 548
(5) 242
19. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order within the number, which of the following will form the second highest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
(1) 356
(2) 497
(3) 812
(4) 739
(5) 264
20. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, in how many numbers thus formed will the first digit be a perfect square? ("I' is also a perfect square)
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) Five
Directions (Questions. 21-25): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer—
(1) if only conclusion I follows.
(2) if only conclusion II follows.
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) if both conclusions I and II follow,
21. Statements:
Some drawings are paintings. All drawings are sketches. Some sketches are interesting.
Conclusions:
I. All paintings are sketches.
II. Some interesting are drawings.
22. Statements:
All pebbles are stone. No stone is a diamond. Some precious are diamonds. Conclusions:
I. Some pebbles are diamonds.
II. Some stones are precious.
23. Statements:
All journeys are distances. Some distances are not journeys. Some journeys are vacations. Conclusions:
I. Some distances are vacations.
II. Some vacations are not journeys.
24. Statements:
All computers are machines. All machines are expensive. All expensive are scanners. Conclusions:
I. At least some scanners are machines.
II. Some computers are not expensive.
25. Statements:
All colleges are institutions. Some institutions are buildings. Some buildings are colleges. Conclusions:
I. Some institutions are both colleges and buildings.
II. No college is a building.
Directions (Questions. 26-30): In each question below is given a number/ symbol followed by five combinations of letter codes numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the number/symbol based on the following coding system and the conditions and select the number of that combination as your answer.
Number/Symbol:
(354#38@72 1 $ 6 * 9 Q
Letter Code:
PVRTSCKMBGENXDA Conditions:
(i) If the first element is an even digit and the last a symbol, the even digit is to be coded as the code for the last symbol.
(ii) If the group of elements contains only one symbol, that symbol is to be coded as the code for the element following it.
(iii) If both the second and the fifth elements are numbers, the fifth number is to be coded as the code for the second number.
26. #95tc2@
(1) TDVXDK
(2) TDXVDK
(3) TDVXBK
(4) TBVXBK
(5) TXDVDK
27. 76#3@p
(1) PNTSKP
(2) MNKTSP
(3) MNSTKP
(4) PNTSKM
(5) MNTSKP
28. 5#9487
(1) T>DMCR
(2) VRDDCM
(3) VDDCRM
(4) VDRDCM
(5) VDDRCM
29. 4#513Q
(1) RTSGVR
(2) ATVGSA
3) RTVGSR
(4) ATGVSA
(5) ATVSGA
30. π36Ω5$
(1) XVSNAE
(2) XSANSE
(3) XSNAVE
(4) XNSASE
(5) XSNASE
Directions (Questions. 31-35): In- the following questions, the symbols *, @, # & and % ate used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
A @ B' means *A is greater than B\ 'A % B' means *A is equal to B\ 'A # B' means 'A is either equal to
or smaller than B\
'A & B' means 'A is either equal to
‘or greater than B\
'A * B' means *A is smaller than B\
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true? Give answer^—
(1) if only Conclusion I is true.
(2) if only Conclusion II is true.
(3) If either Conclusion I or II is true.
(4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
30.65$
(1) XVSNAE
(2) XSANSE
(3) XSNAVE
(4) XNSASE
(5) XSNASE
31. Statements:
S % A, A & D, D? J
Conclusions:
I. D # S II. A? J
32. Statements:
Q @ F, F % Q N? C
Conclusions:
I. Q @ C II. F? N
33. Statements:
R & P, P,? K, K? F
Conclusions:
I. R @ F II. P? F
34. Statements:
M & F, F * C, C % K
Conclusions:
I. M @ C II. F? K
35. Statements:
P & T, T * R, R # B Conclusions: I. P@T II. B & T Directions (Questions. 36-40): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
@ST34G#K¥%9BA6& 2U-X8WQln$HL5V7B
36. Which of the following elements is ninth to the right of the fifteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(1) 2
(2) H
(3) G
(4) $
(5) n
37. If all the numbers and vowels are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
(1) n
(2) W
(3) Q
(4) S
(5) X
38. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by an odd number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four:
39. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?# .
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
40. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 4K#
(2) 1H$
(3) UW8
(4) 9AB
(5) HV5
Directions (Questions. 41 to 50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?
41. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
42. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
43. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
44. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
45. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
46. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
49. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
50. Problem Figures & Answer Figures
ANSWERS
1.(2)
(Diagram)
Required distance = 7 + 4 = 11 km
2.(2): Given number 2 5 6 7 3 9 4 Ascending order 2 3 4 5 6 7 9
Only position of digit 2 remains unchanged.
3. (2): AIR
4. (3): I (NTRU) D, DE
5. (4): 12 B 8 C 6 D 2 A 4 =?
Putting proper symbols:
?=12x8-6/2 + 4
= 96-3 + 4
= 97
6.(2): Given
H O N E S T L Y
Changing as required
G P M F R S K X
Alphabetical order
F G K M P R S X
7. (1)
8. (5): D lives either on 8th or 9th floor.
9. (2): BDON
BOND
10. (3): A E R O B I C
B F Q N B J D Similarly,
Questions. 11-15:
The seating arrangement is as follows:
(Diagram)
11. (3)
12. (1)
13. (4)
14. (5)
15. (3)
16. (1)
: Arranging the numbers as required
264, 356, 497, 739, 812 Required number 356 Sum of the digits 3 + 5 + 6-^-14
17. (2): Required number = 6/2 = 3
18. (4): Operating as required: 356 357, 497 495,
812 813, 739 737, 264 265
Required difference
813- 265 = 548
19. (4): 356 653, 497 974, 812 821, 739 973, 264 642
Second highest number 973 739
20. (2): 356 536, 497 947, 812 182, 739 379, 264 624
Required numbers are: 947, .182
21. (4)
22.(4)
23.(1)
24.(1)
25. (1)
26. (1): Condition (iii) is applicable.
27. (5): No condition is applicable.
28. (5): Condition (ii) is applicable.
29. (2): Condition (i) is applicable.
30. (5) Condition (iii) is applicable.
31- (1): S = A £ D < J
I. D < S True
II. A < J Not true Q > F = C > N
32. (1): I. Q > C True
II. F < N Not true: R \ P < K < F Not true
33. (2): R > P < K < F
I. R > F Not true
II. P < F True
34. (2): M > F < C = K
I. M > C Not True
II. F < K True
35. (4): P > T < K < B
I. P > T Not true
III. B > T Not true
36. (4)
37. (2)
38. (5): T3, Q1, L5, V7
39. (2)
40. (4)
41. (2)
42. (3)
43. (5)
44. (4)
45. (4)
46. (2)
47. (5)
48. (5)
49. (3)
50. (1)
English Language - Paper 1
Directions (Questions. 1 to 5): Read each sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors in punctuation, if any).
1. The University has (1)/ not spent enough (2)/ money to maintaining (3)/ its valuable library. (4)/ No error (5)
2. The survey found (1)/ that most of the employees (2)/ has a positive view (3)/ of the company. (4)/ No error (5)
3. The meeting will not end (1)/ till the Chairman (2)/ gets approval from (3)/ every members of the Board. (4)/ No error (5)
4. For millions of people (1)/ his retirement from (2)/ cricket has been (3)/ a greatest shock (4)/ No error (5)
5. The Chairman has refused (1)/ no to sanction (2)/ the required funds (3)/ for the project (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (Questions. 6 to 10) : Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
6. All the Board members were present with the ……. of the treasurer.
(1) Exception
(2) Absence
(3) Delay
(4) Omission
(5) Refusal
7. The police are …….. with enforcement of law and order.
(1) Responsible
(2) Entrusted
(3) Accountable
(4) Necessary
(5) Ensured
8. People have become …….. under the burden of heavy taxes.
(1) Reckless
(2) Isolated
(3) Punished
(4) Fatigue
(5) Impatient
9. On …….. of his age he is ineligible for the examination.
(1) Reason
(2) Basis
(3) Account
(4) Purpose
(5) Cause
10. The ministers who were concerned …….. the rising prices met every week.
(1) For
(2) Because
(3) Difference
(4) From
(5) About
Directions (Questions. 11 to 25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Energy is neither created nor destroyed; it is only recycled and recast in different forms. Even the human body is a form of energy. Call it prana or jivatma or simply vayu, energy sustains the gross body and expresses itself through sensory perceptions and the basic physical elements.
The three fundamental gunas—satvik, rajasik and tamasik—which characterise the nature of the human being, very often in a combination, are further sub-divided into many basic qualities commonly known as human values. Love, affection, integrity and truth, for instance, are values that are as important to life as breathing or eating. These values are positive but in the course of practice and because they emanate from a mind that is susceptible to negative thoughts, they get corrupted. They generate negativity and manifest in the form of lying, cheating or causing others harm. The very fact that human civilisation has survived over centuries shows that despite all the negativity, the force of positive energy within all of us continues to expand and enrich.
According to the theory of karma, every action generates a corresponding reaction good or bad as the case may be. The process might take place in this life or the next, but take place, it will. The theory prompted sages to exhort humanity to be good and do good. This way, the result of a good deed will invariably be good which will add to the collective good of the human species. This is what Sri Aurobindo called the Goodness Quotient. Swami Vivekananda firmly believed that human nature is basically good. It is only* to be perceived as such and having been aware, to follow it through, for the good of oneself so that it multiplies for social good.
Goodness will help improve the quality of life of not just the individual but an entire society. There is no such thing as f "negative" energy, all energy being positive and constantly recycled. Negativity is therefore a dysfunction of thought or outlook. This has to be resisted from within by reinforcing the positive qualities inherent in human nature.
The instant gratification of the senses might be the driving force in a society driven by consumerism but realising that all the material success and prosperity you have acquired over a lifetime means nothing once your body lies inert, life takes on a new meaning.
11. The fact that human civilization …….. has survived indicates that …… .
(1) Positive energy within us increases despite negativity
(2) Too much positive energy is not harmful
(3) Negative energy usually overpowers positive energy
(4) Negative energy gets destroyed
(5) Positive values do not get corrupted if they are practised
12. Which of the following is suggested by the theory of Karma ?
(1) Human nature is basically bad.
(2) A person is rewarded or punished only in his lifetime.
(3) Human civilisations will continue to survive over the years.
(4) Every action has a corresponding reaction. -
(5) Energy is recycled.
13. What is the Goodness Quotient?
(1) Human nature though basically bad can be trained.
(2) Goodness need not improve the quality of life.
(3) The chance that the reaction to every action can either be good or bad.
(4) The outcome of good deeds is good and adds to the common good.
(5) None of these
14. What did Swami Vivekananda believe ?
(A) Perceiving goodness in human nature is important.
(B) Doing good deeds benefits the individual.
(C) Individual good* muftipties into social good.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Both (A) & (B)
(3) All (A), (B) & (C)
(4) Both (B) & (Q
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following characterises human nature ?
(1) Actions such as breathing and eating
(2) Good deeds
(3) Satvik, rajasik, vayu
(4) Negative thoughts and actions
(5) Three basic gunas comprising basic human values
16. How does energy express itself ?
(1) Through negative emotions
(2) Through sensory perceptions and the basic physical elements
(3) Through the human body
(4) Through Prana and Vayu
(5) None of these
17. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
(1) Energy helps to sustain our physical body
(2) Negativity is manifested in the form of lying and cheating
(3) The theory of karma believes in punishment
(4) Negativity is the result of positive values getting corrupted.
(5) A person's good deeds can improve an entire society.
18. What is the driving force of a society driven by consumerism ?
(1) Improvement of society
(2) Understanding the meaning of life
(3) Search for positive energy
(4) Fulfilling all desires immediately
(5) None of these
19. Which of the following should be the tide of the passage ?
(1) The Role of Negative Energy
(2) The Theory of Gunas
(3) Consumerism and the Goodness Quotient
(4) The Teachings of Sages
(5) None of these
20. Which of the following is true about negativity ?
(1) It existed before positive energy.
(2) Negativity comes from a deviation of our thoughts.
(3) Negativity cannot be fought
(4) Negative energy is stronger than positive energy
(5) None of these
Directions (Questions. 21 to 23) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
21. Exhort
(1) Threaten
(2) Show
(3) Encourage
(4) Alert
(5) Force
22. Sustains
(1) Supports
(2) Defends
(3) Comforts
(4) Holds
(5) Destroys
23. Emanate
(1) Express
(2) Originate
(3) Invent
(4) Enter
(5) Expect
Directions (Questions. 24 & 25) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
24. Enrich
(1) Poor
(2) Courage
(3) Diminish
(4) Poison
(5) Change
25. Acquired
(1) Grabbed
(2) Freed
(3) Stopped
(4) Leave
(5) Lost
Directions (Questions. 26 to 35) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3), (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct, mark (5) i.e. *No correction required' as the answer.
26. The crowd which has gather to protest against the decision slowly returned to their homes.
(1) Which had gathered
(2) Which have gather
(3) Gathering up
(4) Which gathers around
(5) No correction required
27. The bridge in connection with the two cities will remain closed for security reasons.
(1) Connects between
(2) In connection to
(3) Being connected from
(4) Connecting
(5) No correction required
28. Newspapers have great power because their enormous circulation.
(1) On account
(2) Because of
(3) As a result
(4) Owing
(5) No correction required
29. Besides criticism of some supervisors the Chairman still commands respect from the employees.
(1) Despite criticism from
(2) Without criticism of
(3) Except the criticism from
(4) Unless criticism of
(5) No correction required
30. He will be handling the next project since he has vastly experience in this business.
(1) Vast experience
(2) Vastly experienced
(3) A vast experiencing
(4) The vast experience
(5) No correction required
31. The inexperienced trainee accidental turned off the lights during presentation.
(1) Has accidentally turn off
(2) By accident turn on
(3) Accidentally turned off
(4) Accidentally turning off
(5) No correction required
32. Attempts by both parties to reach for a consensus have not succeeded.
(1) Reach at
(2) To reach
(3) In reaching to
(4) To reach upon
(5) No correction required
33. Children nowadays are watching too much television.
(1) To much of
(2) More of
(3) Very much of
(4) Much on
(5) No correction required
34. The approach has affectedly themethodology of research.
(1) Have effectively
(2) Had affect
(3) Has affected
(4) Will affectedly
(5) No correction required
35. The research reported here is based at a survey.
(1) Based on a
(2) Base at a
(3) Based on an
(4) Based into a
(5) No correction required
Directions (Questions. 36 to 40): The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas: (1) Political and Social, (2) Sports and Culture, (3) Economics and Commerce, (4) Science and Health, (5) Miscellaneous. The number of area (1) or (2) or (3) or (4) or (5) as the case may be is the answer.
36. General elections announced in the country.
(1) Political and Social
(2) Sports and Culture
(3) Economics and Commerce
(4) Science and Health
(5) Miscellaneous
37. Suresh Raina will be the captain of the cricket team.
(1) Political and Social
(2) Sports and Culture
(3) Economics and Commerce
(4) Science and Health
(5) Miscellaneous
38. Five army jawans killed in bomb blast.
(1) Political and Social
(2) Sports and Culture
(3) Economics and Commerce
(4) Science and Health
(5) Miscellaneous
39. Pollution level is very high in metro cities.
(1) Political and Social
(2) Sports and Culture
(3) Economics and Commerce
(4) Science and Health
(5) Miscellaneous
40. R.B.I. issued a new series of fiscal bonds.
(1) Political and Social
(2) Sports and Culture
(4) Economics and Commerce
(5) Science and Health
(6) Miscellaneous
Directions (Questions. 41 to 45) : Below in each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary ?
41.
(1) Modert
(2) Moderate
(3) Modelling.
(4) Modulate
(5) Modern
42.
(1) Oncology
(2) Onerous
(3) Omophagia
(4) Ominibus
(5) Oncost
43.
(1) Camarilla
(2) Claycoid
(3) Callipers
(4) Calyx
(5) Calumny
44.
(1) Digest
(2) Diffuse
(3) Difficult
(4) Digamy
(5) Diesel
45.
(1) Protector
(2) Prophecy
(3) Propose
(4) Propone
Directions (Questions. 46 to 50): The number group in each question is to be codified in the following codes.
Number -62489507 3 Letter Codes :KSWPARUXN
You have to find out which of the answers (1), (2), (3) or (4) has the correct coded from the given numbers. If none of the coded forms is correct mark (5) as the answer.
46. 4690738
(1) WKUARSP
(2) WKAXUNR
(3) WAKUXPN
(4) WKAVXNP
(5) None of these
47. 70627362
(1) XUKSXNKS
(2) XUKURNSK
(3) XUKSSNXKS
(4) XUKSRNKS
(5) None of these
48. 92Q348958
(1) ASNrWPARP
(2) ASUNNWAKP
(3) ASUNWPARP
(4) ASUNWARRP
(5) None of these
49. 86247059856
(1) PKSWXURARPK
(2) PKSWXURAPRK
(3) PKSWURPARK
(4) PKWSXURARRK
(5) None of these
50. 367054629
(1) NKOKRAKSA
(2) NKOURWKSA
(3) NKOPRWKSA
(4) NKORRAKSA
(5) None of these
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. (3) It should be 'money to maintain'-
2. (3) It should be have a positive view.
3. (4) It should be 'Every member of the board'.
4. (4) It should be 'a great shock'.
5. (2) It should be 'to sanction'.
6. (1)
7. (2)
8. (5)
9. (3)
10. (5)
11. (1)
12. (4)
13. (4)
14. (3)
15. (5)
16. (2)
17. (3)
18. (4)
19. (5) The title should be and Social
20. (2)
21. (3)
22. (4)
23. (2)
24. (3)
25. (5)
26. (1)
27. (4)
28. (2)
29. (1)
30. (1)
31. (3)
32. (2)
33. (5)
34. (3)
35. (1)
36. (1)
37. (2)
38. (5)
39. (5)
40. (3)
41. (5)
42. (1)
43. (4)
44. (2)
45. (3)
46. (5)
47. (1)
48. (3)
49. (2)
50. (5)
English Language - Paper 2
Directions (Questions. 1-10): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
India, it is ...(1)... said, is not a ...(2)... but a continent. From North to South and East to ...(3)..., the people are different, the languages are ...(4)..., the customs are different. There are few countries on earth with the enormous variety that India has to offer. India is far from the ...(5)... country in the world to travel ...(6).... It can be hard going. Yet it is ...(7)... worth visiting.
Basically India ...(8)... what you make of it and what you want it to be. If you want to see temples, there are temples with enough styles and types. If it is history you want, India has ...(9)... of it; the forts, abandoned cities, ruins, battlefields and monuments all have their...(10)... to tell.
1.
(1) not
(2) often
(3) never
(4) twice
(5) read
2.
(1) country
(2) village
(3) city (4) town
(5) place
3.
(1) North
(2) East
(3) West
(4) rest
(5) no where
4.
(1) same
(2) some
(3) national
(4) different
(5) few
5.
(1) difficult
(2) good
(3) matching
(4) rich
(5) easiest
6.
(1) around
(2) inside
(3) train
(4) cities
(5) upon
7.
(l) no
(2) never
(3) yes
(4) all
(5) thrice
8.
(1) was
(2) in
(3) is
(4) are
(5) gives
9.
(1) books
(2) plenty
(3) notes
(4) little (5) some
10.
(1) poverty
(2) plenty
(3) forts
(4) cities
(5) tales
Directions (Questions. 11-25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them when answering some of the questions.
He was a funny looking man with a high, bald, dome shaped head, a face very small in comparison and a long wavy beard. His unusual features were a standing joke among his friends. He was a poor man—an idler. He didn't work at his trade—a stonecutter, more than what was necessary to keep his wife and three boys alive. He preferred to talk but since his wife was an irate complaining woman, he loved to be away from home.
The whole city he lived in was seething with argumentation. The city was Athens and the man was Socrates — the Greek philosopher. He had funny ways and notions. And to the astonishment of all, the Oracle at Delphi, the priestess when asked, "Who is the wisest man in Athens ?" mentioned Socrates. Socrates was the evangelist of clear thinking : he would present people with questions pretending he didn't know the answers and get them to make astounding admissions. Socrates would go upto a prominent statesman coming to the end of a speech on "courage", about the glory of dying for one's country and say, "Forgive my intrusion, but just what do you mean by courage ?"
"Courage is sticking to your post in danger" would be the reply. "But supposing good strategy demands that you retire ?", Socrates would ask. "You wouldn't stay in that case" the man would be forced to admit. Socrates would persist, "Then is courage sticking to your post or retiring ?". "I'm afraid I don't know." "I don't either", Socrates would say "but perhaps it is not different from just doing the reasonable thing regardless of the danger."
11. Socrates by profession was …..
(1) Philosopher
(2) Idler
(3) Politician
(4) Evangelist
(5) None of these
12. The author's main objective in writing the passage is to
(A) describe the situation prevalent in Athens in Socrates' time.
(B) describe Socrates' physical characteristics.
(C) criticize Socrates' way of life.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Both (B) & (Q
(4) Both (A) & (C)
(5) None of these
13. How did Socrates perceive courage ?
(1) Not abandoning one's post
(2) Retiring from one's post
(3) Dying for one's country
(4) Rightful action in the face of danger
(5) Not changing one's opinion
14. Which of the following best describes Socrates ?
(1) He loved to argue with his wife
(2) He was a handsome man
(3) He was not the wisest man
(4) He had no sense of humour
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(1) The Oracle at Delphi did not know anything
(2) Socrates could not support his family
(3) Socrates' ideas were the same as those of other citizens of Athens
(4) Socrates believed in reason and logic
(5) All of these
16. What was Socrates' style of arguing?
(1) Make fun of people by pointing out the flaws in their arguments
(2) Preach till his audience was convinced about his point of view
(3) Question a person's assumptions to lead him to a different point of view
(4) Rudely interrupt speeches and question the orator
(5) Insult the speaker so that he would get angry and lose the argument
17. An appropriate title for the passage would be
(1) Ancient Greece
(2) He Taught Us To Think
(3) True Courage
(4) The Oracle at Delphi
(5) Arguing
18. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(1) Socrates valued logic
(2) Socrates had an unhappy personal life
(3) Socrates was considered the wisest man in Athens
(4) Socrates worked very hard so that his family could live in comfort
(5) None of these
19. Why did the Oracle name Socrates as the wisest man in Athens ?
(1) Socrates had the answer to all questions
(2) Socrates had a sense of humour
(3) Socrates believed in reasoning; not in blind faith
(4) Socrates was a good orator
(5) Socrates valued friendship
Directions (Questions. 20-22) : Pick out the word which is closest in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
20. Notion
(1) Rules
(2) Clothes
(3) Thoughts
(4) Advice
(5) Gestures
21. Seething
(1) Assembling
(2) Suffering
(3) Receiving
(4) Searching
(5) None of these
22. Astonishment
(1) Disgust
(2) Offence
(3) Realisation
(4) Interest
(5) Wonder
Directions (Questions. 23-25): Pick out the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
23. Irate
(1) Irritable
(2) Easygoing
(3) Sleepy
(4) Calm
(5) Weak
24. Prominent
(1) Ordinary
(2) Dull
(3) Unprofessional
(4) Intelligent
(5) Incapable
25. Forgive
(1) Exempt
(2) Abstain
(3) Lenient
(4) Pardon
(5) Condemn
Directions (Questions. 26-30): Re-arrange the following sentences/group of sentences into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) The disciples began lifting the bags searching for the lightest one.
(B) "Let us sit down and eat", the. Master said after four hours of walking.
(C) The Master went for a picnic with a group of twenty disciples.
(D) The heaviest bag contained the food. So the one who selected it was relieved.
(E) One person selected the heaviest bag willingly.
(F) "Each bag contains things we'll use today. Please select a bag to carry. A bag cannot be traded," he told them.
26. Which is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) C
(4) F
(5) E
27. Which is the SECOND sentence of the paragraph?
(1) B
(2) D
(3) F
(4) C
(5) E
28. Which is the LAST (Sixth) sentence of the paragraph ?
(I) C
(2) B
(3) A
(4) D
(5) E
29. Which is the FOURTH sentence of the paragraph?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) B
(4) F
(5) E
30. Which is the FIFTH sentence of the passage?
(1) F
(2) D
(3) B
(4) A
(5) C
Directions (Questions. 31-40): In each sentence below four words are underlined and are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Each of these words may be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The number of that word is the answer. If all four words are correctly spelt and appropriate the answer is (5) i.e. All correct.
31. She was exellent (1 at) embroidery (2) and designing (3) clothes. (4) All correct (5)
32. The symbal (1) represents (2) the balance of opposites (3) in the universe. (4) All correct (5)
33. He expanded (1) his business (2) though (3) innovative (4) practices. All correct (5)
34. Read economic (1) daylies (2) to improve (3) your general knowledge. (4) All correct (5)
35. He takes his son (1) and daughter (2) on an annual (3) vacation. (4) All correct (5)
36. He defined (1) success (2) in terms off (3) income. All Correct (5)
37. The duke (1) and dukess (2) are persons. (3) of generosity.(4) All correct (5)
38. There is a positive (1) side _ (2) working longer and retiring (3) latter. (4) AH correct (5)
39. He could have avoided (1) the accident (2) if he wasn't (3) so recless. (4) All correct (5)
40. Nowday (1) doctors (2) use antibiotic? (3) sparingly, (4) All correct (5)
Directions (Questions. 41-45): Pick out the most effective word/phrase from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
41. The thieves broke the ……- museum to steal the painting.
(1) up
(2) side
(3) off
(4) into
(5) out
42. It was ….. that the Prime Minister escaped the assassination attempt.
(1) misfortune
(2) difficult
(3) fortunate
(4) advantage
(5) careless
43. A committee of honest citizens ….. to investigate the fraud.
(1) were consisted
(2) were appointed
(3) were decided
(4) were compiled
(5) was appointed
44. With new products hitting the market so ….. customers are confused.
(1) slowly
(2) rapidly
(3) smoothly
(4) expensive
(5) cleverly
45. Because of deforestation, birds are ….. their nesting places.
(1) looking
(2) conserving
(3) searching
(4) demanding
(5) deprived of
Directions (Questions. 46-50) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is no error mark (5).
46. Mahesh and Sachin live (1)/ next by the post office (2)/ not far (3)/ from the station. (4)/ No error (5)
47. After the tsunami (1)/ they didn't know (2)/ weather .they (3)/ would be able to rebuild. (4)/ No error (5)
48. It's been difficult (1)/ to persuade (2)/ to the private sector (3)/ to invest in vaccines. (4)/ No error (5)
49. Each of them (1)/ along with their families and their pets (2)1 is going to Goa /(3) for the summer vacation. (4)/ No error (5)
50. He never attended lectures (1)/ and used to borrow (2)/ the books of his friends (3)/ to study for the exam. (4)/ No error (5)
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 1
7. 4
8. 3
9. 2
10. 5
11. 5
12. 5
13. 4
14. 5
15. 4
16. 3
17. 2
18. 4
19. 3
20. 3
21. 5
22. 5
23. 4
24. 1
25. 5
26. 3
27. 3
28. 4
29. 5
30. 3
31. 1
32. 1
33. 3
34. 2
35. 5
36. 3
37. 2
38. 4
39. 4
40. 1
41. 4
42. 3
43. 5
44. 2
45. 5
46. 2
47. 3
48. 3
49. 2
50. 3
English Language - Paper 3
Directions (Qs. 1 to 15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
During Emperor Akbar's reign, there was a poor man in Agra who was thought to bring bad luck. People believed mat if any one looked at his face in the morning, they would have a bad day.
"Get lost, you ugly fellow!" he would be cursed by one and all. "Hide your face before you kill someone with your evil eye!"
The emperor soon heard of this man's reputation and wanted to see him. The poor fellow, who had not harmed a single person in his life, was brought to Akbar.
Akbar took a look at him and asked him to be brought back in the evening.
That particular day was an especially full and tiring day for the emperor and his courtiers.
So many matters had to be attended to, that Akbar even forgot to eat. By the end of the day, the emperor was exhausted. To make matters worse, Akbar was informed that his favourite child, little Prince Salim, had fallen ill.
Then the emperor suddenly remembered that he had seen the face of the 'unlucky' man that morning.
That was it. It was that man's entire fault, Akbar decided.
Akbar called his courtiers and told them that he was going to have the 'unlucky' man executed. All of them agreed immediately.
That is, all except Birbal. Instead, Birbal let out a short laugh.
"What's the matter* Birbal?" asked the angry emperor. "You seem to find something funny!"
"Nothing, your majesty," replied Birbal.
"You say this man brings bad luck because you had to go without food ever since you saw him this morning. Look at his luck. Yours was the first face he saw today, and he has to die because of it."
Akbar immediately realised his folly and rewarded Birbal for his wisdom.
1. Which of the following is/are NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) Akbar worried too much after meeting the poor man.
(B) Akbar had eaten his food with the poor man.
(C) Akbar decided to execute the poor man
(1) Only (A)
(2) Both (B) & (C)
(3) All (A), (B) & (C)
(4) Both (A) & (B)
(5) Only (C)
2. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) The poor man wanted to see the king.
(2) The poor man was well educated.
(3) The courtiers were sympathetic with the poor man.
(4) King Akbar was happy to see the poor man.
(5) King Akbar realised his mistake.
3. Who was not well on that particular day?
(1) King Akbar
(2) The King's courtiers
(3) Birbal
(4) The poor man
(5) Prince Salim
4. Which of the following describes Birbal?
(1) He was a famous merchant.
(2) He had lost his senses.
(3) He was very poor.
(4) He possessed good logical thinking.
(5) He was a miser.
5. Why had the King not eaten his food?
(1) He was very busy that day.
(2) He had seen the face of the unlucky fellow.
(3) He was not feeling well.
(4) He had been invited by Birbal for lunch.
(5) None of these
6. Why did the King decide to execute the poor man?
(1) The poor man was in fact very unlucky.
(2) The King had had a very bad day after seeing him.
(3) His attendants told him to do so.
(4) The poor man brought ill luck for everyone.
(5) The poor man refused to meet him.
7. Birbal was rewarded because
(1) He was in agreement with the King's decision.
(2) He made the King realise his mistake.
(3) He brought the poor man to the King.
(4) He wanted to teach a lesson to the poor man.
(5) None of these
8. Which of the following cannot be said about the poor man ?
(A) The people of his own place cursed him.
(B) He was living in Agra.
(C) He was executed because of his unlucky face.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All (A), (B) & (C)
(5) None of these
9. What was Birbal's initial reaction when he heard that the poor man would be executed ?
(1) He was angry because Akbar had not taken his advice.
(2) He laughed slighdy.
(3) He was silent and wanted to give a chance to the poor man.
(4) He was very happy because he wanted to get rid of the poor man.
(5) He was surprised and wanted to speak to the poor man.
Directions (Qs. 10 to 12): Choose the word that is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word/ phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.
10. Particular
(1) Special
(2) Definite
(3) General
(4) Significant
(5) Specific
11. Reputation
(1) Character
(2) Respect
(3) Fame
(4) Report
(5) Honour
12. Folly
(1) Argument
(2) Mistake
(3) Words
(4) Conflict
(5) Misunderstanding
Directions (Qs. 13 to 15) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. Exhausted
(1) Consumed
(2) Drained
(3) Resdess
(4) Desirous
(5) Energetic
14. Cursed
(1) Blamed
(2) Hated
(3) Blessed
(4) Ignored
(5) Damned
15. Hide
(1) Seek
(2) Show
(3) Go away
(4) Indicate
(5) Disclose
Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) : Read each sentence to find out whether •there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
16. The boys made up
(1)/ when the
(2)/ owner of the
(3)/ garden appeared.
(4)/ No error
(5)
17. The question was
(1)/ so difficult that
(2)/ nobody were
(3)/ able to answer it
(4)/ No error
(5)
18. The central government has
(1)/ refused to meet
(2)/all the demands
(3)/ of its employees in toto
(4)/ No error
(5)
19. Gandhiji was a
(1)/ man who
(2)/ become a legend
(3)/ in his own time
(4)/ No error
(5)
20. The travel agency made
(1)/ all the arrangements
(2)/ for our journey
(3)/ for England.
(4)/ No error
(5)
Directions (Qs. 21 to 25): Rearrange the following sentences into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) Sometimes, it works like a torch when clouds of confusion surround an individual.
(B) Hence, this is sometimes even called as sixth sense.
(C) It plays a vital role in shaping one's destiny.
(D)The power of intuition shows how individuals can explore the hidden powers of their brain.
(E) In fact intuition is so powerful that it can help an individual foretell the future.
(F) History is full of examples of successful personalities who attributed their success in such times of crisis to that gut feeling.
21. Which of the following is the LAST sentence?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
22. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
23. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence?
(1)A
(2)B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
24. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
25. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
Directions (Qs. 26 to 30): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3), (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5) i.e. *No correction required' as the answer.
26. He regretted that he had acted so rashly in the 'Play'.
(1) because he had act
(2) that he had acts
(3) because he has acted
(4) that he had been acted
(5) No correction required
27. The company had decided for normal its relation with its clientele.
(1) has decided to normal
(2) has decided to normalise
(3) have decided normalisation
(4) has decided in normalising
(5) No correction required
28. The police are tried hard for tracking up the robbers.
(1) trying hard to track down
(2) tried hard to track in
(3) trying hard to track up
(4) tried hard for tracking down
(5) No correction required
29. We had five fingers in each hand.
(1) have five fingers for
(2) had five fingers on
(3) have five finger in
(4) have five fingers on
(5) No correction required
30. He is working hard to success for the examination.
(1) for succeeding
(2) for success off
(3) to succeed in
(4) for success into
(5) No correction required Directions (Qs. 31 to 35) : Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
31. His novels are very popular. They are being ….. into many languages.
(1) Recited
(2) Transformed
(3) Sold
(4) Translated
(5) Crammed
32. We were …… from seeing the prisoner.
(1) Affected
(2) Prevented
(3) Inhibited
(4) Punished
(5) Beaten
33. Ruchi said that they must have a feast to …….. the victory.
(1) Enjoy
(2) Flaunt
(3) Celebrate
(4) Expand
(5) Forget
34. I …… to the teacher for coming late to school.
(1) Went
(2) Apologised
(3) Blamed
(4) Talked
(5) Wished
35. Thieves broke ……. the house last night and stole all the money and jewellery.
(1) Out
(2) In
(3) Up
(4) Into
(5) At
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40): In each sentence below four words that are printed in bold have been numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of them may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of" the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is, any. The number of that word is the answer. If all the words, which are printed in bold, are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. 'All correct* as the answer.
36. The atmosphere (1)/ was fragrent (2)/ with the scent (3)/ of rose flowers (4)./ All correct (5)
37. The fear of universal
(1)/ destruction
(2)/ hangs
(3)/ over us like a dark cloud.
(4)/ All correct
(5)
38. The environment has a profounde
(1)/ influence
(2)/ on the way a society
(3)/ develops.
(4)/ All correct
(5)
39. The cruelties
(1) of history
(2)/ are perpetrated
(3)/ in the name of nobal
(4)/ causes.
(5) All correct
40. Gandhiji is known
(1)/ for his successful
(2)/ afforts
(3)/ to liberate
(4) India.
All correct (5)
Directions (Qs. 41 to 50): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A system of education, which helps to prepare a man to earn his ... (41)..., and ... (42)... his family to the best of his ability, is extremely important. Education, however, has another ... (43)... responsibility, and that is to prepare a man to ... (44)... life itself, and all its struggles, problems and joys with a calm ... (45)..., to be able to make ... (46)... decisions when a crisis arises, and to decide what action should be taken without too much delay. If education can train a man in reliability and make him trustworthy and guide in him the ... (47)... of leadership, it will have achieved the means of ... (48)... his life worthwhile.
Such a type of education is only an ideal and ... (49)... not yet so designed, but should be the aim of the architects of the system to achieve this ...50)....
41.
(1) Degree
(2) Existence
(3) Food
(4) Salary
(5) Livelihood
42.
(1) Educate
(2) Support
(3) Co-operate
(4) Feed
(5) Give
43.
(1) Trivial
(2) Fix (3) Stable
(4) Vital
(5) Minor
44.
(1) Survive
(2) Compare
(3) Face
(4) Lead
(5) Make
45.
(1) Mind
(2) Action
(3) Trial
(4) State
(5) Thinking
46.
(1) Haste
(2) Quick
(3) Liberal
(4) Appropriate
(5) Fast
47.
(1) Path
(2) Advantages
(3) Process
(4) Causes
(5) Tips
48.
(1) Bearing
(2) Doing
(3) Making
(4) Creating
(5) Yielding
49.
(1) Luckily
(2) Informally
(3) Fortunately
(4) Formally
(5) Unfortunately
50.
(1) Deadline
(2) Goal
(3) Destination
(4) Target
(5) Agenda
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. 4
2. 5
3. 5
4. 4
5. 1
6. 2
7. 2
8. 4
9. 2
10. 5
11. 3
12. 2
13. 5
14. 3
15. 2
16. 1
17. 3
18. 5
19. 2
20. 4
21. 5
22. 4
23. 5
24. 3
25. 2
26. 3
27. 2
28. 3
29. 4
30. 3
31. 4
32. 2
33. 3
34. 2
35. 4
36. 2
37. 5
38. 1
39. 4
40. 3
41. 5
42. 2
43. 4
44. 4
45. 5
46. 2
47. 5
48. 5
49. 5
50. 2
English Language - Paper 4
Directions (Questions 1 to 15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
There was once a jackal that lived in a forest by the village along with all the other animals. Now, the particular jackal was adventurous and often strayed into the village in search of cooked food. It was not a particularly easy thing to do as he knew that the villagers would capture him if he were caught. Besides, the village was full of dogs and the jackal was afraid of them. They were sure to kill him or hurt him badly if they ever managed to catch him. But the lure of food proved too strong for him and so the jackal used to visit the village frequently.
One day, just as he was about to enter a big house he heard the sound of barking. To his horror he saw a group of dogs running towards the house. They looked fierce and the jackal was soon trembling with fear. He ran haphazardly and tumbled right inside a tub of blue dye. The dogs didn't see him and ran the other way. By the time the jackal climbed out of the tub he was dyed blue from head to foot. He looked strange and totally unlike any other animal.
The jackal was very happy. "No one will be able to recognize me now", he said to himself, "I can easily fool everyone in the forest." When he entered the forest once again everyone was surprised to see such a strange animal. They had never seen any animal of that colour before. "Who are you ?" the smaller animals asked him. "Where have you come from ?" asked the mighty lion with a frown. "Lord Indra, king of heaven, has sent me to look after you", said the blue jackal in a grand voice, "I'll be your king from now on." "But I have always been the king of the forest" protested the mighty lion. "All that must change now as I am the king", said the blue Jackal enjoying himself, "all of you must serve me and do exactly as I tell you." "What if we don't ?" asked the Tiger. "Then Lord Indra will destroy the entire forest and all of you along with it", said the blue jackal. The animals did not dare to say anything more. "What would you like us to do ?" they asked the blue jackal. "Bring me lots of toad, to start with", said the blue jackal promptly, "I am hungry and can't take care of you unless I am properly looked after."
The animals rushed off in search of food. They took care to bring whatever they could find and offered the best of everything to the blue jackal. The jackal was happy and had his fill. The animals promised to serve him faithfully. He assigned special duties to all the animals but banished the pack of jackals from the forest because he was afraid they might recognize him some day. The blue jackal had a wonderful time after that.
One day something unexpected happened. The banished pack of jackals were roaming just outside the forest and howled together loudly. "The blue jackal forgot himself and joined in the howling just as he used to do before. The other animals were present when it happened
and stared at him incredulously. Here was their mighty blue king howling just like a jackal! So he was a jackal after all and not a strange creature sent from heaven! He had merely been fooling them all these days! Well, they were not going to be fooled any longer. They fell upon the blue jackal and killed him before he could explain or protest, and that was the end of the blue jackal's reign as king!
1. Why did the jackal keep going to the village ?
(1) Because he had many friends in the village.
(2) Because he loved the food the humans prepared.
(3) Because he wanted to get away from the pack of jackals.
(4) Because he was not allowed in the ' forest.
(5) Because he wanted to become the king.
2. When the jackal returned to the forest
(A) he was greeted warmly by the other animals.
(B) the pack of jackals immediately recognized him.
(C) the other animals were surprised to see him.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) None of these
3. How did the jackal change his colour ?
(1) He got himself a skin treatment.
(2) He prayed to Lord Indra to change his colour.
(3) He wore a set of blue clothes.
(4) He tumbled inside a tub containing blue dye.
(5) None of these
4. What would be an appropriate title for the story ?
(1) The foolish animals
(2) The pack of jackals
(3) Lord Indra, king of heavens
(4) The Blue jackal
(5) Power of blue
5. What did the jackal do after he realized that his colour had changed ?
(1) He decided to trick the other animals in the forest.
(2) He decided to kill himself as no one would accept him.
(3) He pretended to be a dog and stayed in the village.
(4) He took a shower hoping the blue colour would run off.
(5) None of these
6. Why did the jackal banish the pack of jackals from the forest ?
(1) He feared they would be jealous of him.
(2) He feared they would not accept him.
(3) He feared they would recognize him.
(4) He feared they would tell the Lion, the king of the forest.
(5) None of these
7. What would happen if the animals refused to serve the jackal ?
(1) The jackal would banish them all from the forest.
(2) The jackal would ensure that they be punished accordingly.
(3) Lord Indra would be very happy about their misbehaviour.
(4) Lord Indra would destroy the forest along with all the animals.
(5) Lord Indra would no longer be the king of heavens.
8. Why did the animals in the forest readily accept the blue jackal as their king ?
(1) Because he was different from all the other animals.
(2) Because he had an answer to all their questions.
(3) Because he claimed he was sent by Lord Indra to look after them.
(4) Because the Lion who was the king of the forest was not doing a good job.
(5) Because the Lion had accepted him as the king.
9. The other animals in the forest discovered that their king was indeed a jackal as
(A) the jackal finally told them the truth about his colour.
(B) their king was caught howling in response to the banished pack of jackals.
(C) the dye faded off unexpectedly one morning.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) None of these
10. What was the first demand of the blue jackal?
(1) That he be served at all times.
(2) That the pack of jackals be banished from the forest.
(3) That he be given a grand ceremony as king.
(4) That the animals in the forest worship him.
(5) That he be excluded from all work in the forest.
Directions (Qs. 11 to 13) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Fierce
(1) Daring
(2) Solid
(3) Violent
(4) Trained
(5) Harsh
12. Protested
(1) Objected
(2) Said
(3) Affirmed
(4) Fought
(5) Thought
13. Lure
(1) Reward
(2) Desire
(3) Happiness
(4) Scent
(5) Temptation
Directions (Qs. 14 & 15) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Unexpected
(1) Noticeable
(2) Pleasant
(3) Ordinary
(4) Original
(5) Usual
15. Banished
(1) Secluded
(2) Embraced
(3) Included
(4) Loved
(5) Delivered
Directions (Qs. 16 to 25) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. *No Error* (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. The employee was (1)/ asked to leave her job (2)/ as she was not (3)/ performing well. (4)/ No Error (5)
17. In school (1)/ we have to enrolled (2)/ in sports (3)/ and music classes. (4)/ No Error (5)
18. This report (1)/ highlights on (2)/ the need for (3)/ further research. (4)/ No Error (5)
19. My best friend (1)/ left the country, (2)/ I hope to hearing (3)/ from her again soon. (4)/ No Error (5)
20. She is pretending (1)/ to be sick (2)/ because she don't (3)/ want to study. (4)/ No Error (5)
21. While I am (1)/ doing the house works, (2)/ I like to listen to (3)/ music on the radio. (4)/ No Error (5)
22. I was very lucky (1)/ that day (2)/ and catched (3)/ a lot of fish. (4)/ No Error (5)
23. Several banks (1)/ are shown interest (2)/ in the proposed development (3)/ of the public sector. (4)/ No Error (5)
24. In order (1)/ to be successful (2)/ you must worked (3)/ very hard. (4)/ No Error (5)
25. As a child, (1)/ I always want to (2)/ have a bicycle (3)/ of my own. (4)/ No Error (5)
Directions (Qs. 26 to 30): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
26. I ……. your parents that I would take care of you.
(1) said
(2) alerted
(3) forced
(4) promised
(5) asked
27. The seating arrangement makes it difficult for the students to …… from each other.
(1) copy
(2) talk
(3) relate
(4) complaint
(5) train
28. Computers are useless ……. you know how to use them.
(1) therefore
(2) if
(3) hence
(4) should
(5) unless
29. We need more information before we can reach a …… .
(1) development
(2) fact
(3) step
(4) design
(5) decision
30. We must have ….. that these drugs are harmless.
(1) proof
(2) signs
(3) notes
(4) intelligence
(5) drawings
Directions (Qs. 31 to 35) : In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.
31.
(1) Lettre
(2) Error
(3) Habitual
(4) Explain
(5) All Correct
32.
(1) Pulse
(2) Arrange
(3) Stores
(4) Prudent
(5) All Correct
33.
(1) Substance
(2) Holiday
(3) Disaster
(4) Constant
(5) All Correct
34.
(1) Sense
(2) Impact
(3) Tension
(4) Febrary
(5) All Correct
35.
(1) Memory
(2) Excited
(3) Social
(4) Fourty
(5) All Correct
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) The next day, the priest discovered that one of the servants cut his stick shorter by two inches, fearing that it would grow.
(B) When the priest questioned each of the servants, they denied.
(C) One day a rich merchant's house was robbed, and he suspected one of his servants.
(D)In this way, the wise old priest caught the thief. (E) He approached the wise priest in the village and asked for help on the matter.
(F) The priest then gave them each a stick of equal length and said that the stick of the real thief would grow by two inches the next morning.
36. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) F
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) D
37. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1)A
(2)D
(3)C
(4)B
(5)E
38. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) B
(5) F
39. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1)C
(2)D
(3)F
(4) A
(5)E
40. Which.of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1)A
(2)E
(3)B
(4)F
(5) D
Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the most appropriate word in each case.
An idol-maker had to deliver an idol to a customer. He placed it on his donkey's back and they began their journey. The idol-maker was extremely ...(41)... at his job and this particular ...(42)... was one of the best he had ever made. Whoever saw it stopped to bow down and ...(43).... The donkey ...(44)... they were bowing to him. He was enormously pleased and flattered. He did not wish to go away from the place where he was held in such high ...(45)..., and so he stopped ...(46)....
His master coaxed him to start walking again, but he did not ...(47).... Finally his master lifted the idol on to his own head and ...(48)... his journey. The donkey stood where he was, head held high, and feeling very happy until, he suddenly became ...(49)... that no one was watching him. The people were now following his master and bowing to the idol. The donkey realized his ...(50)... and feeling ashamed of himself, ran to rejoin his master.
41.
(1) adventurous
(2) tactful
(3) fond
(4) skilled
(5) elaborate
42.
(1) piece
(2) imitation
(3) feature
(4) art
(5) design
43.
(1) appreciation
(2) praises
(3) pray
(4) meditate
(5) contemplate
44.
(1) wished
(2) knew
(3) enjoyed
(4) thought
(5) said
45.
(1) preference
(2) esteem
(3) spirit
(4) altitude
(5) favour
46.
(1) steadily
(2) willingly
(3) abruptly
(4) smoothly
(5) quietly
47.
(1) succeed
(2) win
(3) avail
(4) yield
(5) justify
48.
(1) cancelled
(2) disregarded
(3) began
(4) resumed
(5) stopped
49.
(1) aware
(2) obvious
(3) tired
(4) reluctant
50.
(1) outcome
(2) foolishness
(3) fantasy
(4) behavior
(5) conduct
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 4
5. 1
6. 3
7. 4
8. 3
9. 2
10. 1
11. 3
12. 1
13. 5
14. 5
15. 2
16. 5
17. 2
18. 2
19. 3
20. 3
21. 2
22. 3
23. 2
24. 3
25. 5
26. 4
27. 1
28. 5
29. 5
30. 1
31. 1
32. 5
33. 5
34. 4
35. 4
36. 5
37. 1
38. 3
39. 1
40. 4
41. 4
42. 1
43. 3
44. 4
45. 2
46. 2
47. 4
48. 4
49. 1
50. 2
English Language - Paper 5
Directions (Questions. 101 to 115) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
There once lived a rich businessman who had a lazy and fun-loving son. The businessman wanted his son to be hard-working and responsible. He wanted him to realise the value of labour. One day he summoned his son and said : "Today, I want you to go out and earn something, failing which you won't have your meal tonight.
The boy was casual and not used to any kind of work. This demand by his father scared him and he went crying straight to his mother. Her heart melted at the sight of tears in her son's eyes. She grew restless. In a bid to help him she gave him a gold coin. In the evening when the father asked his son what he had earned, the son promptly presented him the gold coin. The father then asked him to throw it into the well. The son did as he was told.
The father was a man of wisdom and experience and guessed that the source of the gold coin was the boy's mother. The next day, he sent his wife to her parent's town and asked his son to go and earn something with the threat of being denied the night meal if he failed. This time he went crying to his sister who sympathised with him and gave him a rupee coin out of her own savings. When his father asked him what he had earned the boy tossed the rupee coin at him. The father again asked him to throw it into the well. The son did it quite readily. Again the father's wisdom told him that the rupee coin was not earned by his son. He then sent his daughter to her in-laws' house. He again asked his son to go out and earn with the threat that he shall not have anything for dinner that night.
This time since there was no one to help him out; the son was forced to go to the market in search of work. One of the shopkeepers there told him that he would pay him two rupees if he carried his trunk to his house. The rich man's son could not refuse and was drenched in sweat by the time he finished the job. His feet were trembling and his neck and back were aching. There were rashes on his back. When he returned home, he produced the two rupee note before his father. As usual the father asked him to throw it into the well. The horrified son almost cried out. He could not imagine throwing his hard-earned money away, He said amid sobbing : "Father ! My entire body is aching. My back has rashes and you are asking me to duow the money into the well."
At this the businessman smiled. He told him that one feels pain only when the fruits of hard labour are wasted. On the earlier occasions he was helped by his mother and sister and therefore felt no pain in throwing the coins into the well. The son had now realised the value of hard work. He vowed never to be lazy and safe keep the father's wealth. The father handed over the keys of his shop to the son and promised to guide him through the rest of his life.
101. The boy felt no pain in throwing the coins into the well the first two times because
(1) his father asked him to do so.
(2) he was curious to know what would happen.
(3) he was helped by his mother and sister.
(4) it was his hard earned money.
(5) he trusted his father.
102. What ultimatum did the father give to the son ?
(1) He would throw away all his money if he continued to be casual.
(2) He would not be given his meal if he did not earn something.
(3) He would have to earn one gold coin in order to stay in the house.
(4) He would give him the keys to the shop if he studied well.
(5) He would throw him into the well if he continued to be lazy.
103. Why did the father want his son to earn something ?
(1) He wanted him to realise the value of labour.
(2) The father did not wish to work anymore.
(3) The father did not trust his son with money.
(4) He wanted his son to add to the family income.
(5) He was envious of his son.
104. How did the son realise the value of hard work ?
(A) He was asked to throw his hard-earned money into the well.
(B) He was paid only two rupees for all his manual labour.
(C) He found it difficult to secure a job in the market.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (A) and (C)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
105. Why did the boy retaliate the third time when his father asked him to throw the money into the well ?
(1) His entire body was aching.
(2) He wanted some pocket money.
(3) He was tired of throwing all his money into *the well.
(4) He wanted to invest his money.
(5) It was his hard-earned money.
106. What could be an appropriate moral for the story ?
(1) The value of hard earned money.
(2) Hard work always pays off.
(3) Hard work is the key to success.
(4) Fruits of hard work are always bitter.
(5) The power of money.
107. How did die father realise that his son had not earned the money himself the first two times?
(1) His wife confessed that she gave him a gold coin.
(2) He kept a close watch over his son.
(3) He saw his daughter give him a rupee coin.
(4) He noticed that his son threw the money readily into the well.
(5) He did not see his son doing any work.
108. In the end, why did the father give the keys of the shop to his son ?
(1) He realised that his son would not be able to secure a job.
(2) He was too old to run the business.
(3) He did not want to sell the shop.
(4) His son had realised the value of hard work.
(5) It was a gift from the father.
109. What job did the boy have to do in the market ?
(1) He was asked to sell vegetables.
(2) He was supervising the staff in his farmer's shop.
(3) He carried one of the shop-keepers' trunk to his house.
(4) He was helping out in his father's business.
(5) None of these.
110. Why did the businessman send his daughter and wife away ?
(1) He wanted them to have a holiday.
(2) They were interfering in the family business.
(3) He wanted to spend time alone with his son.
(4) He wanted to punish his son.
(5) He did not want them to help his son.
Directions (Qs. Ill to 113) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
111. Promptly
(1) Obediently
(2) Quickly
(3) Successively
(4) Cleverly
(5) Deftly
112. Drenched
(1) Tortured
(2) Visible
(3) Soaked
(4) Exposed
(5) Sultry
113. Summoned
(1) Called
(2) Scolded
(3) Approached
(4) Consoled
(5) Assembled
Directions (Qs. 114 <& 11 J) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
114. Restless
(1) Nervous
(2) Worried
(3) Calm
(4) Uneasy
(5) Distracted
115. Casual
(1) Careless
(2) Dependent
(3) Responsible
(4) Sensitive
(5) Immature
Directions (Qs. 116 to 12J): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e.' *No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
116. As they watched (1)/ the football match (2)/ the huge crowd (3)/ chant in unison. (4)/ No Error (5)
117. The noise was (1)/ so faindy that (2)/ one had to strain (3)/ one's ears to hear it. (4)/ No Error (5)
118. When he found out that (1)/ the girl had escaped (2)/ he was absolute (3)/ irritated and furious. (4)/ No Error (5)
119. The weather is (1)/ much more warmer (2)/ than it was (3)/ a few days ago. (4)/ No Error (5)
120. A vast numbers (1)/ of people greeted (2)/ the film star on his arrival (3)/ at the airport. (4)/ No Error (5)
121. Time the concert ended, (1)/ the crowd clapped (2)/ and cheered (3)/ enthusiastically. (4)/ No Error (5)
122. The students blamed (1)/ their professor for (2)/ their late arrival (3)/ in the concert. (4)/ No Error (5)
123. We have many rooms (1)/ in our house, (2)/ several of which (3)/ have not been in use for years. (4)/ No Error (5)
124. When I heard (1)/ footsteps behind me (2)/ I was being scared (3)/ that I would be attacked. (4)/ No Error (5)
125. The Manager said that (1)/ he wanted to hear (2)/ the pros and cons (3)/ of the issue. (4)/ No Error (5)
Directions (Qs. 126 to 130): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
126. We were so late we …….. had time to catch the train.
(1) nearly
(2) almost
(3) hardly
(4) simply
(5) completely
127. He …… to all his friends that he was getting married.
(1) told
(2) related
(3) announced
(4) called
(5) spoke
128. Today's paper ……. that we shall have an election this year.
(1) states
(2) admits
(3) "expresses
(4) proposes
(5) gives.
129. Has the committee …….. a decision yet ?
(1) done
(2) made
(3) confronted
(4) arrived
(5) voted
130. The old man was ……… by a truck on the zebra crossing on the main road.
(1) got hit
(2) run across
(3) run out
(4) blocked
(5) knocked down
Directions (Qs. 131 to 13S): In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e. 'All Correct' as your answer.
131. The completion (1)/ of the tunnel (2)/ has been held (3)/ up owning (4)/ to a strike. All Correct. (5)
132. The Directer (1)/ spoke clearly and distinctly, (2)/ therefore the audience (3)/ could understand (4)/ every word he spoke. All Correct. (5)
133. Shall I write (1)/ a lettre (2)/ to him or would you prefer (3)/ to call (4)/ him ? All Correct. (5)
134. It has always been the policy (1) / of the company (2)/ to promote existing (3)/ staff to senior positions. (4)/ All Correct. (5)
135.The tennis (1)/ and cricket matches (2)/ were interupted (4)/ as it began (4)/ to rain. All Correct. (5)
Directions (Qs. 136 to 140) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) "Certainly," said the wolf and began to howl.
(B) "I know," said the sheep, "but please grant me my last wish."
(C) Hearing him howl, the farmer's dogs rushed to the spot and drove him away.
(D)A young wolf cornered a sheep in the farm.
(E) "My wish is for you to sing me a song so that I may dance one last time."
(F) "You can't escape from me", said the proud wolf.
136. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) E
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C
(5) F
137. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) F
(4) C
(5) E
138. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) F
(4)B
(5) E
139. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) D
(5) F
140. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1)D
(2)F
(3) B
(4) E
(5) C
Directions (Qs. 141 to 150) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A squirrel joined the service of the Lion, the King of the Forest. He did whatever work was given to him, quickly and well The lion became ...(141)... of him and ...(142)... to give him a cardoad of almonds, as pension when he ...(143).... The squirrel ...(144)... the other squirrels in the forest because of their carefree life. He longed to run up and down trees and leap from branch to branch like them but he could not leave the King's side and even if he could he had to move with courdy dignity. He ...(145)... himself with the thought that at the end of his career, he would receive a cardoad of almonds, food that few squirrels got to taste in their ...(146)....
"They will ...(147)... me then", he would tell himself. Many years passed by and the squirrel became ...(148)... and then it was time for him to retire. The king gave a grand banquet in his honour and at the end of it, presented him with a cartload of almonds as he had promised. The squirrel had waited so long for this day but when he saw the almonds, he was seized with ...(149).... He realised they were of no use to him now as he had lost all his ...(150)....
141.
(1) grateful
(2) appreciative
(3) fond
(4) cautious
(5) used
142.
(1) declared
(2) suggested
(3) thought
(4) imagined
(5) promised
143.
(1) retires
(2) injuries
(3) surrenders
(4) desires
(5) dies
144.
(1) manipulated
(2) cautioned
(3) banished
(4) enjoyed
(5) liked
145.
(1) justified
(2) articulated
(3) advised
(4) consoled
(5) embraced
146.
(1) existence
(2) survival
(3) lifetime
(4) career
(5) forest
147.
(1) admire
(2) appreciate
(3) envy
(4) love
(5) call
148.
(1) old
(2) greedy
(3) king
(4) promoted
(5) brave
149.
(1) reluctance
(2) jealously
(3) pity
(4) sadness
(5) money
150.
(1) service
(2) appetite
(3) loyalty
(4) teeth
(5) money
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
101. 3
102. 2
103. 1
104. 1
105. 5
106. 1
107. 4
108. 4
109. 3
110. 5
111. 2
112. 3
113. 1
114. 3
115. 3
116. 4
117. 2
118. 3
119. 2
120. 1
121. 1
122. 4
123. 3
124. 3
125. 2
126. 3
127. 3
128. 1
129. 2
130. 5
131. 4
132. 1
133. 2
134. 5
135. 4
136. 4
137. 2
138. 1
139. 5
140. 4
141. 3
142. 5
143. 1
144. 4
145. 4
146. 3
147. 3
148. 1
149. 4
150. 4
English Language - Paper 6
Directions (Questions from 101 to 115): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while -answering some of the questions.
A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea so he began fishing in the river. Every morning he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long. In the evening he would sell whatever he had caught, buy food for himself and go home. It was a hard life for an old man. One hot afternoon while he was trying to keep awake and bemoaning his fate,' a large bird with silvery feathers alighted on a rock near him. It was Kaha, the heavenly bird. "Have you no one to care for you, grandpa ?' asked the bird. "Not a soul." "You should not be doing such work at your age" said the bird. "From now on I will bring you a big fish every evening. You can sell it and live in comfort." True to her word, the bird began to drop a large fish at his doorstep every evening. All that the fisherman had to do was take it to the market and sell it. As big fish were in great demand, he was soon rolling in money. He bought a cottage near the sea, with a garden around it and engaged a servant to cook for him. His wife had died some years earlier. He had decided to marry again and began to look for a suitable woman.
One day he heard the royal courtier make an announcement. "Our king has news of a great bird called Kaha", said the courtier. "Whoever can give information about this bird and help catch it, will be rewarded with half the gold in the royal treasury and half the kingdom!" The fisherman was sorely tempted by the reward. Half the kingdom would make him a prince !
"Why does the king want the bird ?" he asked. "He has lost his sight," explained the courtier. "A wise man has advised him to bathe, his eyes with the blood of Kaha. Do you know where she can be found ?" "No... I mean... no, no...." Torn between greed and his sense of gratitude to the bird, the fisherman could not give a coherent reply. The courtier, sensing that he knew something about the bird, informed the king. The king had him brought to the palace.
"If you have information about the bird, tell me," urged the king. "I will reward you handsomely and if you help catch her, I will personally crown you king of half my domain." "I will get the bird for you", cried the fisherman, suddenly making up his mind. "But Kaha is strong. I will need help." The king sent a dozen soldiers with him. That evening- when the bird came with the fish, the fisherman called out to her to wait. "You drop the fish and go and I never get a chance to thank you for all that you've done for me," he said. "Today I have laid out a feast for you inside. Please alight and come in." Kaha was reluctant to accept the invitation but the fisherman pleaded so earnesdy that she finally gave in, and alighted. The moment she was on die ground, the fisherman grabbed one of her legs and shouted to the soldiers hiding in his house to come out. They rushed to his aid but their combined effort could not keep Kaha down.
She rose into the air with the fisherman still clinging onto her leg. By the time he realised he was being carried away, the fisherman was too high in the air to let go. He hung on grimly, and neither he nor Kaha were ever seen again.
101. Why was the king desperately looking for Kaha the bird ?
(1) The king wanted a pet bird.
(2) A wise man advised the king to capture the bird for good luck.
(3) Kaha was the only heavenly bird widi silvery feathers.
(4) The king was blind and required Kaha's blood for his eyes.
(5) Kaha was known to be the greatest bird alive.
102. Why did the bird volunteer to bring fish for the old man?
(1) The old man was inexperienced at fishing-
(2) The bird took pity on the old man and wanted to help him.
(3) The bird had caught more fish than required.
(4) The bird wanted to make the old man rich.
(5) The bird had heard die old man bemoaning his fate.
103. What led the courtier to sense that the fisherman might know something about Kaha ?
(1) The courtier had observed Kaha alight at the fisherman's house every evening.
(2) The courtier had seen the fisherman talk to Kaha.
(3) The fisherman fumbled when asked about Kaha.
(4) Word went around that the fisherman was in contact with Kaha,
(5) None of these
104. Which of the following cannot be said about the royal courtier ?
(A) He was a very observant man.
(B) He was jealous of the old fisherman.
(C) He had informed the king about the fisherman.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (Q
(4) Only (A) and (C)
(5) Only (B) and (C) '
105. What could be an appropriate tide for the story ?
(1) A Fish a Day.
(2) The Lonely Fisherman.
(3) Kaha the Silvery-feathered Bird.
(4) The Blind King.
(5) The Ungrateful Old Fisherman.
106. Which of the following is not true about Kaha ?
(1) Kaha was a very considerate bird.
(2) The blood of Kaha was precious.
(3) Kaha was a strong bird.
(4) Kaha flew away along with the old fisherman.
(5) Kaha saved the fisherman from the King's wrath.
107. Why did the fisherman stammer when asked if he knew about the bird ?
(1) The fisherman thought he was going to be punished for living off the bird.
(2) He was thrilled he would be able to help die king.
(3) He already knew about the reward that was being offered.
(4) He was conflicted between the king's reward and his gratitude towards the bird.
(5) The fisherman was faced with a very unexpected question by a royal courtier.
108. How did the fisherman get Kaha to come down ?
(A) The fisherman told Kaha that the King was impressed by her kindness and wanted to meet her.
(B) The fisherman invited Kaha to live in his house as he was a lonely man and wanted company.
(C) The fisherman invited Kaha to his house for a feast in order to thank her for everything.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only(B)
(3) Only(C)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) Only (A) and (C)
109. What does the phrase 'rolling in money' as highlighted in the passage refer to?
(1) To have a large amount of money.
(2) To have just enough of money.
(3) To live a life that is not affordable.
(4) To live off someone else.
(5) To be self-sufficient.
110. Why was the fisherman doubtful about revealing information about Kaha to the courtier ?
(1) He did not want to lose Kaha.
(2) Kaha was his source of income.
(3) He was worried about his supply of fish.
(4) He had heard that Kaha was going to be killed for her blood.
(5) Kaha had asked the fisherman not to tell anyone about her where about.
Directions (Qs. Ill to 113): Chdose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
111. Aid
(1) Health
(2) Help
(3) Support
(4) Freedom
(5) Mercy
112. Sorely
(1) Happily
(2) Painfully
(3) Gainfully
(4) Greatly
(5) Primarily
113. Torn
(1) Conflicted
(2) Alarmed
(3) Frightened
(4) Strained
(5) Frayed
Directions (Qs. 114 & 115): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the words printed in bold as used in the passage.
114. Alight
(1) Setde
(2) Take off
(3) Come by
(4) Rest (5) Free
115. Grabbed
(1) Caught
(2) Released
(3) Secured
(4) Loosened
(5) Held
Directions (Qs. 116 to 125) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
116. Removing seeds from (1)/ cotton plants was (2)/ a slowest job until (3)/ Eli Whitney invented the cotton gin. (4)/ No Error (5)
117. India is a land of.(l)/ great political leaders (2)/ who ruled the country effectively (3)/ and also by protecting its national interest. (4)/ No Error (5)
118. The climbers will try again (1)/ to reach the summit of the mountain, (2)/ their chances of doing so are (3)/ more better than they were last week. (4)/ No Error (5)
119. Most birds sings (1)/ only in daylight, (2)/ one notable exception (3)/ being the nightingale. (4)/ No Error (5)
120. In the eve of the election (1)/ there, was heavy (2)/: political security (3)/ in the state. (4)/ No Error (5)
121. The teacher thought (1)/ the children would (2)/ be happy for (3)/ clearing away their toys. (4)/ No Error (5) '
122. Neither Alice or Mary remembers (1)/ what happened before (2)/ the car crashed (3)/ into the wall. (4)/ No Error (5)
123. This is the woman (1)/ that always wears (2)/ a black shawl (3)/ to work. (4)/ No Error (5)
124. Many leading members (1) / of the opposition party (2)/ has tried to justify (3)/ their decisions. (4)/ No Error (5)
125. The view of (1)/ the manufacturing and (2)/ tourist industries is that, (3)/ the economy is improving. (4)/ No Error (5)
Directions (Qs. 126to 130) .-Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
126. So successful her business to be, that Marie was able to retire at the age of 50.
(1) So successful her business was
(2) So successful being her business
(3) Her business was so successful
(4) So was her successful business
(5) No correction required
127. The ship was in mercy of the waves.
(1) to be in mercy of
(2) at die mercy of
(3) having mercy on
(4) merciful to
(5) No correction required
128. He not to have resigned, we would have been forced to dismiss him.
(1) Had he not
(2) Had hot he
(3) He had not
(4) He not had
(5) No correction required
129. A wealthy coin collector was eager to pay the huge sum for the coin because it was one kind.
(1) of one kinds
(2) one of kinds
(3) one of a kind
(4) one of those kinds
(5) No correction required
130. The thief carried the knife carefully to not cut himself.
(1) so as not to
(2) so not to
(3) not to
(4) not in order to
(5) No correction required
Directions (Qs. 131 to 135): In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are cor reedy spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence, then mark (5) i.e. 'All Correct' as your answer.
131. The economist (1)/ was hesistant (2)/. to comment (3)/ on the government policy (4)/. All Correct (5)
132. The king knew (1)/ that he had definately (2)/ been wrong about his choice (3)/ of courtiers (4)/. All Correct (5)
133. Statistics (1)/ are now compulsory (2)/ for all students taking a cource (3)/ in engineering (1)/. All Correct (5)
134. The caretaker (1)/ is responsible (2)/ for the maintainance (3)/ of the school buildings (4)/. All Correct (5) •
135. The more scarce (1)/ any collecteble (2)/ item is, the higher (3)/ the price (4)/ tends-to be. All Correct (5)
Directions (Qs. 136 to 140) : Rearrange the following six sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Seeing the dogs and his master running after the fox; the rooster screamed "No ! Don't come near me !"
(B) A fox sneaked into a farm and grabbed a prize rooster. The farmer saw him and raised an alarm.
(C) "My master was very cruel to me," explained the rooster to the fox. "Tell him to stay away from me."
(D) The rooster flew up into a tree and stayed there till he was rescued by his master.
(E) The fox was delighted. In the process of shouting to the farmer he released his hold over the rooster.
(F) Soon the farmer and his dogs started chasing the fox. The fox, was holding the rooster in his mouth, and was running very fast.
136. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) E
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5)F
137. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) C
(2) D
(3) F
(4) B
(5) E
138. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1)A
(2)D
(3) F
(4) C
(5)B
139. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) D
(2) C
(3) B
(4) A
(5) F
140. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) F
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (Qs. 141 to 150) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Haria, a poor barber lived alone in his small hut. He was ...(141)... to his work and whatever he earned was enough to fulfil his needs. One evening, after returning from work, Haria was hungry. Just as he was ...(142)...* what he could cook for dinner he heard a hen clucking outside his hut. "That hen would make a great feast for me," thought Haria and prepared to catch the hen. With a littie effort he ...(143)... in catching the hen and as he was about to kill the hen, it squeaked, "Please do not kill me, Oh kind man ! I will help you." Haria stopped. ...(144)... he was surprised that the hen spoke, he asked, "How can you help me ?" "If you ...(145)... my life, I will lay a golden egg for you everyday," said the hen.
Haria's eyes ...(146)... in delight. Haria was surprised to hear this promise. "A golden egg ! That too everyday ! But why should I believe you ? You might be lying," said Haria. "If I do not lay a golden egg tomorrow, you can kill me," said the hen. After this promise, Haria spared the hen and ...(147)... for the next day.
The next morning, Haria found a golden egg ...(148)... outside his hut and the hen sitting beside it. "It is true ! You really can lay a golden egg!" exclaimed Haria with great delight. He did not ...(149)... this incident to any one, ...(150)... that others would catch the hen.
141.
(1) dedicated
(3) enthusiastic
(5) engrossed
142.
(1) feeling
(3) dreaming
(5) wondering
143.
(1) quit
(3) succeeded
(5) managed
144.
(1) Finally
(2) Though
(3) Since
(4) As
(5) Because
145.
(1) forgive
(2) leave
(3) give
(4) spare
(5) consume
146.
(1) exclaimed
(2) dazed
(3) open
(4) awakened
147.
(1) remembered
(2) starved
(3) waited
(4) rejoiced
(5) looked
148.
(1) lying
(2) forlorn
(3) presented
(4) hiding
(5) secluded
149.
(1) seek
(2) say
(3) narrates
(4) reveal
(5) hide
150.
(1) fearing
(2) selfish
(3) concerning
(4) citing
(5) alarmed
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
101. 4
102. 2
103. 3
104. 2
105. 5
106. 5
107. 4
108. 3
109. 1
110. 4
111. 2
112. 2
113. 1
114. 2
115. 2
116. 3
117. 4
118. 4
119. 1
120. 1
121. 3
122. 1
123. 4
124. 3
125. 3
126. 3
127. 2
128. 1
129. 3
130. 3
131. 2
132. 2
133. 3
134. 3
135. 2
136. 4
137. 5
138. 5
139. 2
140. 3
141. 1
142. 5
143. 3
144. 3
145. 4
146. 2
147. 3
148. 1
149. 4
150. 1
English Language - Paper 7
Directions (Questions from 101 to 115): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
A pundit was visiting a remote town. The people of the town worried him everyday with invitations for lunch or dinner. "I will only eat in a house where no one has ever told a lie," said the pundit. A very rich man stepped up and said, "Come to my house, Oh Master. No one in my home has ever told a lie." The pundit accepted the invitation. Before going to the rich man's house, the pundit inquired about the rich man and learned everything he could about him. Walking along with the rich man, the pundit asked, "How many children do you have?" "Only one son " replied the rich man. "The people of this town said he had three sons! Why is he saying he has only one? Is he lying?" wondered the pundit, "but I should not be too hasty to judge him. Perhaps he is telling the truth. Let me wait." "How old are you now?" asked the pundit. "I am ten years old," answered the rich man.
"There he goes again! His hair is gray, his face has wrinkles, he can barely walk, and he says he is only ten years old! No, No. I should not come to a rushed conclusion. I shall give him one more chance," decided the pundit. "How many acres of land do you have?" asked the pundit. "I have only six feet of land for myself" said the rich man. 'This is like trying to hide a whole pumpkin in a spoonful of rice !" thought the pundit. "This man is indeed the king of liars! How can I eat in his house? Will it turn me into a liar as well? Let me see how far he can go."
When they arrived at the house the rich man told his wife, we have a special guest today so make him your best lunch. I will take him to the lake for a walk. We will be back soon. On their way back from the river, they passed an orchard. The rich man plucked two ripe mangoes, and cut a bunch of ripe bananas. "Whose orchard is this?" asked the pundit. "This orchard belongs to the ones who do not sleep a wink at night," replied the rich man. At the house, the rich man's wife had laid out the lunch. "Please come and eat" she said. "I need to clarify a few things first," declared the pundit. "What is it?" asked the rich man. "I know you have three sons, why did you say you had only one?" demanded the pundit. The rich man immediately called for his sons and gave them a task. The eldest and the youngest both said, "Father, you are forever ordering us around". Only the middle son promptly agreed to obey. "Did you see that, Oh Master?" asked the rich man. "I do have three sons, but only one of them truly listens to me." "Fine, but why did you claim that you were only ten years old?" asked the pundit. "I am over sixty," replied the rich man. "But for the last ten years, I have devoted myself to a spiritual life. I believe that it is only then since I have truly lived," replied the rich man.
Excellent answer applauded the pundit. "But you own thousands of acres of fertile land.'Why did you claim to have only six feet?" "I have acquired thousands of "acres of land. I did every trick in the trade to become rich, but it has only made my sons proud and arrogant. What use is all" this wealth-to me? When I die, the six feet of land where I will be buried is all that will truly be mine," said the rich man.
The pundit sat down to eat. As he was taking his leave, he asked the rich man, "what did you mean when you said the orchard belongs to the ones who do not sleep a wink at night? I do own the orchard and work hard tending to my trees, but at night, I am so tired that I fall asleep. Meanwhile the thieves, who stay awake all night, steal most of my yield. So in truth the orchard belongs to them. The ones who do not sleep a wink at night", said the rich man.
101. On what condition did the pundit agree to invitations for lunch or dinner?
(1) He would only eat from a rich man's plate.
(2) He would only eat in a house where no one had lied.
(3) He would eat in a house that cooked only vegetarian food.'
(4) He would only eat from a banana leaf.
(5) None of these. .
102. Which of the following is said to be true of the rich man?
(A) The rich man had three sons.
(B) The rich man was fifty years old.
(C) The rich man owned vast acres of land.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) Only (A) and (C)
103. What was the rich man trying to imply when he said that he was only ten years old?
(1) He had a near death experience ten years ago.
(2) The rich man was trying to appear younger than his actual age.
(3) He had truly lived only after he devoted himself to spiritual life.
(4) The rich man was trying to convey his innocence to the pundit.
(5) The rich man wanted the pundit to know that he was still a child at heart.
104. In the passage, why did the rich man say that he had only six feet of land, when he owned the whole orchard?
(1) He did not want the pundit to know that the orchard belonged to him.
(2) The orchard was distributed equally among his sons and he had only six feet for himself.
(3) He believed that when he died, he would have only six feet of land that would truly be his.
(4) The land that was productive in the whole orchard was only six feet long.
(5) The orchard belonged to his ancestors and only six feet was rightfully his.
105.1n the passage, what did the pundit imply by using the phrase trying to hide a pumpkin in a spoonful of rice?
(A) That only pumpkin and rice was served for dinner.
(B) That the rich man was a liar.
(C) That the rich man grew only pumpkins in his orchard.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B) and (C)
106. What did the rich man mean when he said that the orchard belonged, to the ones who do not sleep a wink at night?
(1) The orchard belonged to his sons who looked after it.
(2) The orchard belonged to the thieves who robbed from it.
(3) The owls looked after the orchard during the night.
(4) The orchard belonged to the neighbours.
(5) The orchard was donated to charity.
107. Why was the pundit hesitant to eat at the rich man's house?
(1) The pundit was not accustomed to having rich food.
(2) He felt that the rich man was proud and a two-faced human being.
(3) The rich man's sons were not at home for lunch.
(4) He did not want to cause any trouble to the rich man's wife.
(5) He felt that the rich man lied to him.
108. Why did the pundit feel that the rich man was lying?
(l)The pundit was spying on the rich man.
(2) The pundit had inquired and learned about the rich man prior to the lunch.
(3) The rich man was avoiding certain questions asked by the pundit.
(4) The pundit found it hard to believe that the rich man never lied.
(5) The rich man had too many secrets.
109. The rich man claimed to have only one son because
(1) His middle son was the only child who obeyed him.
(2) His eldest and youngest sons had long been married.
(3) He had adopted his other two sons.
(4) He did not want to introduce his eldest and youngest sons to the pundit.
(5) He only loved his second son, who was taking care of him.
110. Why did the pundit agree to eat at the rich man's house?
(1) The rich man claimed to have never told a lie.
(2) The rich man was an old friend of the pundit.
(3) The rich man could afford to treat the pundit.
(4) The rich man owed the pundit a. favour.
(5) The pundit travelled a long distance and he was tired.
Directions (Questions from 111 to 113) .-Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
111. Tending
(1) Growing
(2) Supplying
(3) Watching
(4) Attending
(5) Contributing
112. Clarify
(1) Confirm
(2) Explain
(3) Simplify
(4) Describe
(5) Express
113. Barely
(1) Easily
(2) Hardly
(3) Scantily
(4) Poorly
(5) Completely
Directions (Questions from 114 and 115) : Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
114. Tired
(1) Drained
(2) Sleepy
(3) Relaxed
(4) Energised
(5) Exhausted
115. Special
(1) Unique
(2) Exclusive
(3) Rare
(4) Important
(5) Ordinary
Directions (Questions from 116 to 125) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
116.Jason sell his house and.(l)/ moved to a flat (2)/ because it was (3)/ expensive to maintain. (4)/ No Error (5)
117. He accepted the offer (1)/ because thereW<2)/ nothing more better (3)/ corhing,his way. (4)/ No Error (5)
118 Most villages were cut off (1)/ from the rest of (2)/ die country (3)/ owing to heavy floods. (4)/ No Error (5)
119. The trainer revised (1)/ his work thorough (2)/ so that no one (3)/ could find fault with it. (4)/ No Error (5)
120.The band will play (1)/ the National Anthem when (2)/ the President arrives (3)/ on the country. (4)/ No Error (5)
121. If you are (1)/ caught stealing (2)/ in the super market, (3)/ you will be fined. (4)/ No Error (5)
122. They left very early (1)/ for the station (2)/ for fear that they might (3)/ be held up on traffic. (4)/ No Error (5)
123. By the time the (1)/ fire engine arrived (2)/ at the scene, (3)/ the building had already collapsing. (4)/ No Error (5)
124. Gloria and Fiona (1)/ are always in (2)/ a state of disagreement (3)/ for one another. (4)/ No Error (5)
125. The man which stole die camera (1)/ hid it in his home (2)/ until he could safely (3)/ get it out of town. (4)/ No Error (5)
Directions (Questions from 126 to 130) : Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicates that something has been omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
126. Sunita had ……. been out of the hospital …….she slipped and fractured her arm.
(1) hardly, when
(2) just, as
(3) well, and
(4) then, when
(5) also, as
127. During the strike, all work at the factory came to a …….
(1) stoppage
(2) close
(3) decline
(4) end
(5) halt
128. A parable is a story with a moral, the story being …… of the underlying moral.
(1) familiar
(2) identical
(3) irrelevant
(4) illustrative
(5) summary
129.Jason promised to …….. an attempt to get better grades this year.
(1) give
(2) make
(3) take
(4) keep
(5) have
130. The teacher read the children the story of the Titanic'.
(1) also
(2) to
(3) again
(4) well
(5) by '
Directions (Questions from 131 to 135): In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e. 'All Correct' as your answer.
131. The Principle (1)/ insisted that the teachers (2)/ set an example (3)/ for the students. (4)/ All Correct (5)
132. All drivers (1)/ must carry (2)/ their lisense (3)/ and insurance (4)/ papers. All Correct (5)
133. Children (1)/ normally respond (2)/ to praise (3)/ and encoragement. (4)/ All Correct (5)
134. Modern (1)/ farm implements (2)/ have revolusionised (3)/ the agricultural industry. (4)/ All Correct (5)
135. The mountain (1)/ range (2)/ has many high peaks (3)/ and deep canyones. (4)/ All Correct (5)
Directions (Questions from 136 to 140) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) O-nami was very strong and knew the art of wrestling. In his private spells he defeated even his teacher, but in public he was so timid, that his own pupils defeated him.
(B) The teacher advised him saying "Your name means Great Waves, imagine that you are huge waves sweeping everything before you, swallowing everything in your path. Do this and you will be the greatest wresder in the country."
(C) O-nami soon registered for a wrestling match and won. After that, no one in Japan was able to defeat him.
(D) In the early days of the Meiji era there lived a well-known wresder called O-nami, Great Waves.
(E) In the days that followed; O-nami meditated on the advice given by the Zen master.
(F) O-nami felt he should go to a Zen master for help. He approached Hakuju a wandering teacher and told him of his great trouble.
136. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) F
(4) B
(5) E
137. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) E
(2)-B
(3) D
(4) C
(5) F
138. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) B
(4) C
(5) F
139. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) F
(4) E
(5) C
140. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) D
(2) F
(3)B
(4)E
(5) C
Directions (Questions from 141to 150):In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are^ printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
There was once a poet who fell upon such hard times that he was no longer able to ...(141)... his family. Hearing that the king greatly encouraged talent and was famed for his generosity, the poet set off for the Royal Palace. When brought ...(142)... the king, he ...(143)... low and requested permission to recite a poem. On hearing his recitation, the king was well pleased and asked him to name his reward.
The poet, ...(144)..., to a chess-board before the king, said, "your highness, if you place just one grain of rice on the first square of this chess-board, and double it for every square, I will consider myself well ...(145)...." "Are you sure?" asked the king, greatly ...(146).... "Just grains of rice, not gold"? "Yes, your highness," affirmed the poet. "So it shall be" ordered the king. His courtiers started ...(147)... the grain on the chess board. One grain on the first square, two on the second, four on the third, ...(148)... on the fourth and so on. By the time they reached the tenth square they had to place five hundred and twelve grains of rice. The number rose to lakhs on the twentieth square. When they ...(149)... the half way mark, the grain count was over hundred crores ! Soon the count ...(150)... to lakhs of crores and eventually the helpless king had to hand over his entire kingdom to the clever poet. And it all began with just one grain of rice.
141.
(1) surrender
(2) fight
(3) care
(4) feed
(5) defend
142.
(1) before
(2) following
(3) after
(4) by
(5) aside
143.
(1) hunched
(2) knelt
(3) fell
(4) stand
(5) bowed
144.
(1) talking
(2) across
(3) pointing
(4) eyeing
(5) looking
145.
(1) deserved
(2) rewarded
(3) blessed
(4) fortunate
(5) equipped
146.
(1) surprised
(2) vigilant
(3) understanding
(4) happy
(5) honoured
147.
(1) sampling
(2) hiding
(3) finding
(4) placing
(5) moving
148.
(1) seven
(2) eight
(3) three
(4) five
(5) six
149 .
(1) entered
(2) reached
(3) revised
(4) arrived
(5) interrupted
150.
(1) justified
(2) enlarged
(3) risen
(4) improved
(5) increased
Answers
Question numbers Answers
101. 2
102. 5
103. 3
104. 3
105. 2
106. 2
107. 5
108. 4
109. 1
110. 1
111. 4
112. 2
113. 2
114. 4
115. 5
116. 1
117. 3
118. 5
119. 2
120. 4
121. 5
122. 4
123. 4
124. 4
125. 1
126. 1
127. 5
128. 2
129. 2
130. 2
131. 1
132. 3
133. 4
134. 3
135. 4
136. 1
137. 3
138. 1
139. 5
140. 3
141. 4
142. 1
143. 5
144. 3
145. 2
146. 1
147. 4
148. 2
149. 2
150. 5
Computer Knowledge - Paper 1
1. The instructions of a program that is currently being executed is sorted in
(1) Secondary memory
(2) Main memory
(3) Read only memory
(4) None of these
2. The number of bits used to represent a character is
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) None of these
3. The programming language FORTRAN is mainly used for
(1) Data processing applications
(2) Scientific applications
(3) Real time applications
(4) None of these
4. The MS DOS operating system is a
(1) Time sharing operating system
(2) Single user operating system
(3) Distributed operating system
(4) None of these
5. The number of select input lines in an 8-to-l Multiplexer is
(1) 1
(2) 8
(3) 256
(4) None of these
6. The number of bits used to represent a number (integer) is
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) None of these
7. A toggle flip-flop can be constructed using a JK flip-flop by connecting the
(1) Toggle input to J and the inverted form of toggle input to K
(2) The toggle input to J
(3) Inverted form of toggle input to K
(4) None of these
8. In a stack computer, there is support for
(1) PUSH and POP instructions only
(2) Zero address instructions only
(3) Zero address instructions, PUSH and POP
(4) None of these
9. The minimum hardware required to construct a 3-to-8 decoder is
(1) Two 2—to—4 decoders
(2) Two 2—to-4 decoders and l-to—2 decoders
(3) Three 2—to—4 decoders
(4) Depends on the technology (TTL, CMOS, etc)
10. The microprocessor 40486 is a processor with reduced
(1) Instruction set
(2) Power Requirement
(3) MIPS performance
(4) Register to register addition
11. In the IEEE 754 floating point representation standard, the word length of double precision is
(1) 23 bits
(2) 127 bits
(3) 16 bits
(4) 64 bits
12. The sum of two hexadecimal numbers 23D and 9AA gives the hexadecimal number
(1) AF7
(2) BF6
(3) BE7
(4) BE5
13. The simplified form of the expression AB + ABC' is
(1) AB (2) A (B + C)
(3) A (B + C')
(4) None of these
14. Which of the following is not a universal building block ?
(1) Three-input NAND gate
(2) Two-input NOR gate
(3) Two-input multiplexer
(4) Two-input EXOR gate
15. Which of the following is not an advantage of asynchronous circuit ?
(1) High speed
(2) Lesser power consumption
(3) Smaller design effort
(4) No need to provide clock generation circuitry
16. The minimum number of bits required to represent numbers in the range -23 to +31 is
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 5
17. A CPU has a 16 bit program counter. This means that the CPU can address
(1) 16 K memory locations
(2) 32 K memory locations
(3) 64 K memory locations
(4) 256 K memory locations
18. A large sized network is termed as
(1) WAN
(2) LAN
(3) MAN
(4) VAN
19. Computers in a computer network are connected via
(1) Telephone line only
(2) Satellite channel only
(3) Either telephone line or sate-llite channel or both
(4) Coaxial cable only
20. E-mail stands for
(1) Electronic mail
(2) Excess mail
(3) Educational mail
(4) None of these
21. Modem refers to
(1) Modulation
(2) Modulator
(3) Modulator and Demodulator
(4) Modern modes of communication
22. Messages are transferred in a computer network through
(1) Circuit switching
(2) Message switching
(3) Packet switching
(4) Multiplexing
23. Signals that involve human communications are generally
(1) Digital
(2) Analog
(3) Either digital or analog
(4) None of these
24. Frequency range of the human voice is usually
(1) 100 - 4000 Hz
(2) 200 - 600 Hz
(3) 199 - 200 Hz
(4) 400 - 800 Hz
25. Data Networks usually use
(1) Simplex transmission
(2) Half duplex transmission
(3) Full duplex transmission
(4) Duplex transmission
26. Twisted wire pair can accommodate a maximum data rate of
(1) 2400 bps
(2) 4800 bps
(3) 9600 bps
(4) 19200 bps
27. Co-axial cables are widely used in
(1) Telephone Networks
(2) Cable TV Networks
(3) Both in telephone and cable TV networks
(4) Computer Networks
28. Angle modulation is referred to
(1) Phase modulation only
(2) Frequency modulation only
(3) Amplitude and frequency modulation
(4) Frequency and phase modulation
29. Radio broadcasting is a common example of
(1) FDM
(2) TDM
(3) Both of these
(4) None of these
30. In network terminology, 'SAP' refers to the
(1) Secured application
(2) Service access points
(3) Simple access protocol
(4) Service access protocol
31. Which one of the following is not a Bit-oriented protocol ?
(1) BISYNC
(2) DDCMP
(3) HDLC
(4) SDLC
32. The local-loop of a telephone channel consists of which of the following transmission mediums?
(1) Twin-wire
(2) Microwave
(3) Satellite
(4) Coaxial cable
33. Which of the following modulations requires the lowest bandwidth ?
(1) ASK
(2) PSK
(3) FSK
(4) QPSK
34. Which of the following is not a part of a FAX transmitter ?
(1) PCM encoder
(2) Scanning
(3) Data compaction
(4) Digital modulation
35. Satellite to ground communication takes place through
(1) Medium wave
(2) Short wave Microwave
(4) Optical signal
36. An IBM compatible PC 386 SX system uses
(1) A 16-bit CPU
(2) A 32-bit CPU
(3) A 64-bit CPU
(4) A 386-bit CPU
37. The language BASIC is normally used along with
(1) An assembler
(2) A compiler
(3) An interpreter
(4) None of these
38. A linker is a program which generates
(1) The executable program from object program
(2) An object program from an assembly language program
(3) The use of global variables
(4) None of these a user
39. A debugging tool is a program which
(1) Removes program
(2) Removes computer
(3) Helps the user find bugs in his program
(4) Displays the errors in a user program
40. Which of the following is not an output of an assembler?
(1) Executable program
(2) A symbol table
(3) Object program
(4) None of these
41. SQL is relationally
(1) A complete language
(2) An incomplete language
(3) Cannot handle certain relations
(4) A sound language
42. 'Raster scan display' means that the screen is scanned from
(1) Top to bottom and right to left
(2) Left to right and top to bottom
(3) Bottom to top and left to right
(4) Bottom to top and right to left
43. Which of the following attributes is important for presenting the text in a multimedia document?
(1) Font
(2) Character format
(3) Colour
(4) All of these
44. In Ink Jet printers, colour printing is possible through generation of colours by
(1) Four colour cartridges
(2) Seven colour cartridges
(3) Spraying electrons of different colours and shades on the paper
(4) A device which mixes different colours inside the printer to produce the desired shade
45. A medium sized network is termed as
(1) WAN
(2) LAN
(3) MAN
(4) VAN
46. Which of the following standards is followed in India ?
(1) IFIP
(2) XCITT
(3) ISO
(4) ANSI
47. Which of the following is not a goal of a computer network?
(1) Resource sharing
(2) Low reliability
(3) Load sharing
(4) To avoid physical movement
48. In digital telephone transmission, the digitisation of speech signals is done by
(1) 4 bit PCM
(2) 6 bit PCM
(3) 8 bit PCM
(4) 16 bit PCM
49. In a telephone network, an echo may be introduced at the
(1) Switch
(2) Multiplexer
(3) Transmission cable
(4) Hybrid
50. A 30-channel PCM signal in digital telephony will have a data rate of
(1) 64 kb/sec.
(2) 240 kb/sec.
(3) 1 Mb/sec.
(4) 2.048 Mb/sec.
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. 2
2. 2
3. 2
4. 2
5. (4) : 3
6. 3
7. 4
8. 3
9. 2
10. 4
11. 4
12. 3
13. (4) : AB(1+C)
14. 2
15. 3
16. 3
17. 3
18. 1
19. 3
20. 1
21. 3
22. 3
23. 2
24. 1
25. 3
26. 3
27. 3
28. 4
29. 1
30. 2
31. 1
32. 1
33. 2
34. 1
35. 3
36. 2
37. 3
38. 2
39. 3
40. 1
41. 1
42. 2
43. 2
44. 1
45. 3
46. 2
47. 2
48. 3
49. 4
50. 4
Computer Knowledge - Paper 2
1. Which of the following is not an advantage of Dynamic RAMs ?
(1) High density
(2) Low cost
(3) High speed
(4) No need for memory refresh
2. When the value 37 H is divided by 17 H, the remainder is
(1) 00 H
(2) 03 H
(3) 07 H
(4) 09 H
3. The memory that requires refreshing of data is
(1) SRAM
(2) EPROM
(3) DRAM
(4) Bubble memory
4. A boot strap is
(1) A memory device
(2) A program to start up a computer
(3) Hardware of computer used to check memory
(4) An assembler
5. The process of accessing information on a CD-ROM is
(1) Random
(2) Sequential
(3) Semi-random
(4) None of these
6. The basic circuit of ECL supports the
(1) AND logic
(2) XOR logic
(3) NOT logic
(4) OR-NOR logic
7. Virtual memory system allows the employment of
(1) More than address space
(2) The full address space
(3) More than the hard disk space
(4) None of these
8. CACHE memory is implemented using
(1) Dynamic RAM
(2) Static Ram
(3) EAROM
(4) EPROM
9. If K = J in a J-K flip-flop, then this results in
(1) T-flip-flop
(2) D-flip-flop
(3) S-R flip-flop
(4) Not defined
10. CPU gets the address of the next instruction to be processed from
(1) Instruction register
(2) Memory address register
(3) Index register
(4) Program counter
11. CARRY in a half-adder can be obtained by using
(1) EX-OR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) OR gate
(4) EX-NORgate
12. The key technology used in the fourth generation computers is
(1) MSI
(2) SSI
(3) LSI & VLSI
(4) Transistor
13. Which of the following logic building blocks can be used to implement any combinational logic circuit?
(1) Decoder
(2) Multiplexer
(3) EX-OR gate
(4) Encoder
14. Graphics is inserted in
(1) Frame
(2) Box
(3) Page
(4) None of these
15. Address of the first cell in the worksheet is
(1) 1
(2) A
(3) Al
(4) 1 A
16. ERP is used in
(1) Operating systems
(2) Security passes
(3) Information environment
(4) None of these
17. Data mining is used for
(1) Decision making by the management
(2) Collecting the information
(3) Retrieving the information
(4) None of the above
18. Spoken messages may be stored and forwarded by
(1) Voice mail system
(2) Video conferencing
(3) E-mail
(4) Expert system
19. Decision tables link conditions and
(1) Tables
(2) Programs
(3) Actions
(4) None of these
20. A software design description document only includes
(1) Data Dictionary
(2)ER diagram'
(3) DFD
(4)1, 2 and 3
21. Language developed for string manipulation is
(1) SNOBOL
(2) LISP
(3) Ada
(4) None of these
22. Which of the following programming languages is interpreted as well as compiled ?
(1) C
(2) C++
(3) Basic
(4) Java
23. In which of the following, the keys must be ordered?
(1) Sequential search
(2) Hashing
(3) Binary search
(4) None of these
24. Which of the following searching methods requires that all keys must reside in internal memory?
(1) Binary search
(2) Sequential search
(3) Hashing search
(4) None of these
25. Arrays can be initialised provided they are
(1) Automatic
(2) External
(3) Static
(4) Both (2) and (3)
26. Arrays are passed as arguments to a function by
(1) Value
(2) Reference
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
27. Recursive functions are executed in a
(1) Last in first out order
(2) First in first out order
(3) Parallel fashion
(4) Any one of these
28. When a function is recursively called, all automatic variables
(1) Are initialised during each execution of the function
(2) Axe retained from the last execution
(3) Are maintained in a stack
(4) None of these
29. A static variable is one
(1) Which cannot be initialised
(2) Retains its value throughout the life of the program
(3) Which does not share memory location with any other variable
(4) All of these
30. The function ROUND (1343.45, -2) returns
(1) 1343
(2) - 1343
(3) -1300
(4) 1300
31. Consider the following program fragment :
main ( )
{
int a, b, c; b = 2;
a = 2* (b ++);
c = 2* (++ b);
}
Which one of the following is the correct output of the above program? (1) a = 4, c = 6 (2) a = 3, c = 8 (3) b = 3, c = 6 (4) a = 4, c = 8
32. What is the output of the following program?
main ( ) {
int X, Y, Z;
X = 2;
Y = 1;
Z = 1;
if (X > Y + Z) printf ("Hello ! \n"); else if (X < Y + Z) printf ("Hey !\n"); else
printf ("Hey !\n");
}
(1) Hi !
(2) Hello !
(3) Hey !
(4) None of these
33. Statements in a C program should begin
(1) In 1st column
(2) In 7th column
(3) In 10th column
(4) In any column
34. What is the value of the variable POLYGON in the following program?
main ( )
{
int POLYGON, L, B; L = B = 2;
POLYGON = (L= = B)?1:0;
}
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) None of these
35. In the following statement,
f print (fpt, "% n", i), the variable fpt is
(1) A character variable
(2) Arbitrary
(3) A pointer to a file
(4) None of these
36. How many times the following loop will be executed ?
C1 = 'a’;
while (C1 > = ‘a’ & C1 < = ‘Z)
{
C1 ++;
}
(1) 25
(2) 20
(3) 0
(4) None of these
37. What would be the value of i and k?
{
int i, j, k;
j = 5; i = 2* j/2;
k = 2* (j/2);
}
(1) i = 5, k = 5
(2) i = 4, k = 4
(3) i = 5, k = 4
(4) i = 4, k = 5
38. If ASCII value of Y is 120, then what is the value of i = (V - V)/3?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3)0
(4)4
39. How many times will the following loop be executed?
for (;;;)
{int x = 5;
if (x = 1)
{x ++;}
}
(1) Never
(2) Once
(3) 5 times
(4) Infinitely many times
40. Worst case time complexity of the heap-sort algorithms is
(1) O (N log2 N)
(2) O (Nhb N)
(3) O (N2)
(4) O (N3)
41. Disk partitioning can be done by
(1) FORMAT COMMAND
(2) FDISK COMMAND
(3) SCAN DISK COMMAND
(4) PARTITION COMMAND
42. Hard disk is logically organised as
(1) Tracks
(2) Cylinders
(3) Cylinders & Sectors
(4) Both (1) & (2)
43. The data for the "Hard disk type" is stored in
(1) Partition Table
(2) CMOS RAM Setup
(3) Main Memory
(4) Boot Record
44. A floppy diskette is organized as
(1) Tracks
(2) Sectors
(3) Tracks & Sectors
(4) Head & Side
45. DS DD floppy diskette capacity is
(1) 48 TPI
(2) 96 TPI
(3) 64 TPI
(4) 80 TPI
46. Which one of the following is true?
(1) Mouse is connected to LPT1
(2) Mouse is connected to LPT2
(3) Mouse is connected to the serial port
(4) None of these
47. Which one of the following is not an internal DOS command ?
(1) MORE
(2) DATE
(3) REN
(4) CLS
48. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) OS can be loaded in high memory
(2) Area above 1 MB is called the expanded memory
(3) All programs can use the extended memory
(4) None of these
49. Windows is popular because of its
(1) GUI features
(2) Multitasking capacity
(3) Desktop technology
(4) Being inexpensive
50. The objective of a time-sharing operating system is to
(1) Minimize the next execution time
(2) Maximize processor utilisation
(3) Minimize the user response time
(4) None of these
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. 3
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
5. 3
6. 4
7. 1
8. 1
9. 1
10. 4
11. 2
12. 3
13. 2
14. 1
15. 3
16. 3
17. 1
18. 1
19. 3
20. 4
21. 2
22. 4
23. 3
24. 1
25. 4
26. 2
27. 1
28. 1
29. 2
30. 4
31. 4
32. 3
33. 4
34. 2
35. 3
36. (4) : 26
37. 3
38. 3
39. 4
40. 1
41. 2
42. 3
43. 2
44. 3
45. 1
46. 3
47. 1
48. 3
49. 1
50. 3
Computer Knowledge - Paper 3
1. What would be the output of the following program?
Sum = 0;
for (i = - 100; i < 0; i++)
sum + = abs (i)
Print f ("% /; sum);
(1) 100
(2) 5050
(3) - 5050
(4) -100
2. Back tracking is another name for which of the following methods of traversal?
(1) Depth first
(2) Breadth first
(3) D search
(4) None of the above
3. Main () returns a value of the type
(1) Real
(2) Character
(3) Int
(4) Null
4. Sharing of common information is achieved by the concept of
(1) Virtual copying
(2) Inheritance
(3) Encapsulation
(4) None of these
5. Binary overloaded operators are passed by …arguments).
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) No
(4) Four
6. Unary overload operators are passed by …arguments).
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) No
7. In C++, a function contained within a class is called
(1) A member function
(2) An operator
(3) A class function
(4) A method
8. :: is known as
(1) Scope operator
(2) Scope resolution operator
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
9. Which of the following can legitimately be passed to a function?
(1) A constant
(2) A variable
(3) A structure
(4) A header file
10. … operator must have one class object.
(1) +
(2) New
(3) All
(4) None of these
11. Element double Array[7] is which element of the array ?
(1) The sixth
(2) The seventh
(3) The eighth
(4) Impossible to tell
12. Delete operator is used
(1) To allocate storage
(2) To deallocate storage
(3) To delete variable name
(4) None of these
13. Class members are … by default.
(1) Private
(2) Protected
(3) Public
(4) None of these
14. Which of the following is the scope resolution operator?
(1)::
(2);
(3) «
(4) ->
15. Inline functions … call overload.
(1) Increase
(2) Reduce
(3) Reduce or Increase
(4) None of these
16. A class that inherits a base class containing virtual function is called
(1) Virtual
(2) Polymorphic
(3) Derived
(4) Base
17. The copy operation by a simple assignment causes … , in some cases.
(1) No effect
(2) Hollow copy
(3) Copy exactly the same as original
(4) Creates new
18. In C++ ,iostreams, the format flags can be reset by
(1) Reset f 0
(2) Unset f 0
(3) Restiflags
(4) Imaskf 0
19. The standard stream classes can be
(1) Extended
(2) Redefined
(3) Used in C program also
(4) User defined
20. In C++, the stream base class is
(1) Iostream
(2) Iofstream
(3) Ios
(4) Stdio
21. The template function declaration specifies
(1) Template class
(2) A generic class
(3) Exception
(4) Identifier
22. Shot noise is generated at the
(1) Photo detector
(2) Pre-amplifier
(3) Optical fiber
(4) None of these
23. In C, it is best to implement chained hash table as an array of
(1) Strings
(2) Structures
(3) Pointers
(4) None of these
24. The technique of linear probing for collision resolution can lead to
(1) Clustering
(2) Radix sort
(3) Efficient storage utilisation
(4) Overflow
25. In C, strings are stored in
(1) Linked-list of characters
(2) Linked list of unsigned characters
(3) Array of characters
(4) Array of integers
26. Two methods cannot have the same name in Java. Is it true?
(1) Yes
(2) No
(3) Sometimes true
(4) None of these
27. What is the result of the expression (1 & 2) ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 7
28. Consider the following class definition :
Class A extends B {
Public A (int x) { } Public A (int x, int y) {
Super (x, y);
}
Which of the following is legal statement to construct A type objects ?
(1) A a = new A ()
(2) A a = new A (4, 2, 7);
(3) A a = new A (5,6);
(4) b & c
29. The checkbox group class is a subclass of the component class. Is it true?
(1) Yes
(2) No
(3) May be true or false
(4) None of these
30. Which of the following assignements is/are valid?
(1) float x = 123.4;
(2) long m = 023;
(3) double y = 0 x 756
(4) b Be c
31. A computer program consists of
(1) System flowchart
(2) Program
(3) Algorithms written in computer's language
(4) Discrete logical steps
32. An assembler is a
(1) Program
(2) Person who assembles the parts
(3) Symbol
(4) Language
33. Programming errors generally fall into which of the following categories?
(1) Syntax Errors
(2) Execution Errors
(3) Logical Errors
(4) All of these
34. Which of the following is not a relational data base ?
(1) dBase IV
(2) 4th Dimension
(3) FoxPro
(4) Reflex
35. Data items grouped together for storage purposes are called a
(1) Record
(2) Title
(3) List
(4) String
36. Which of the following is not a Sequence Storage Device ?
(1) Magnetic Disk
(2) Magnetic Tape
(3) Paper Tape
(4) All of these
37. In which of the following addressing modes, the contents of a register specified in the instructions are first decremented and then these contents are used as the effective address of the operands ?
(1) Index addressing
(2) Indirect addressing
(3) Auto increment
(4) Auto decrement
38. A network where the computers are within 100 to 300 metres is
(1) LAN
(2) WAN
(3) Internet
(4) None of these
39. Which among the following defines completely 'multimedia'?
(1) Internet
(2) Text, Internet, Pictures
(3) Text, Pictures, Video, Animation, Sound
(4) Video, Sound, Animation
40. Using HTML, a normal text can be converted into
(1) Hyper Text
(2) ASCII Text
(3) Coloured Text
(4) An Image
41. Windows is
(1) An operating system
(2) An operating environment
(3) A character user interface
(4) None of these
42. Unix is an example of
(1) Batch processing operating system
(2) Time sharing operating system
(3) Real time sharing system
(4) None of these
43. PIF editor belongs to which group ?
(1) Main
(2) Accessories
(3) Games
(4) None of these
44. The binary equivalent of 63 is
(1) 01100011
(2) 01111110
(3) 01110001
(4) None of these
45. RTF stands for
(1) Real time fonts
(2) Real rime files
(3) Rich text format
(4) Rich text fonts
46. The minimum and maximum numbers (unsigned) that can be stored in a 8-bit work is
(1) 0 and 99
(2) 0 and 255
(3) - 128 and 127
(4) 0 and 127
47. File name with extension as .VXD represents
(1) Normal application file
(2) Text file
(3) Device drivers
(4) Picture file
48. Combo Box in a dialog box is
(1) A combination of list box and check box
(2) A list box
(3) An option button
(4) A combination of text box and list box
49. An operating system is a software which
(1) Helps the operators who are maintaining a computer system
(2) Helps other programs run
(3) Helps in resource management
(4) Is run to recover lost data when power failure occurs
50. The minimum number of flip-flops required to implement a 16-bit ring counter is
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 65,536
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. 2
2. 1
3. 4
4. 2
5. 1
6. 2
7. 1
8. 2
9. 2
10. 2
11. 3
12. 2
13. 1
14. 1
15. 2
16. 2
17. 2
18. 2
19. 1
20. 3
21. 2
22. 1
23. 3
24. 1
25. 3
26. 2
27. 1
28. 4
29. 2
30. 4
31. 3
32. 1
33. 4
34. 1&3
35. 1
36. 1
37. 4
38. 1
39. 3
40. 1
41. 2
42. 2
43. 1
44. 4: (111111)
45. 3
46. 2
47. 3
48. 4
49. 2
50. 1
Test of General Awareness with Special Reference to Banking Industry
BANKING REGULATION
R B I'S CONSTITUTION AND OBJECTIVES
The Reserve Bank of India (R B I) was constituted under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and started functioning with effect from 1 April, 1935. R B I is the oldest among the central banks operating in developing countries, though it is much younger than the Bank of England and the Federal Reserve Board operating as the central banks in UK and USA respectively, being developed countries. R B I is a state owned institution under the Reserve Bank (Transfer of Public Ownership) of India Act, 1948. This Act empowers the Union Government, in consultation with the Governor of the R B I. to issue such directions to R B I as considered necessary in public interest. The Governor and four Deputy Governors of R B I are appointed by the Union Government. The control of the R B I vests in the Central Board of Directors, that comprises the Governor, four Deputy Governors and 15 Directors nominated by the Union Government. The R B I's internal management is based' on functional specialisation and coordination amongst about 20 departments, with headquarters at Mumbai. which is the financial capital of the country. The main objectives of the R B I are contained in the preamble of the R B I Act. 1934. It reads "Whereas it is expedient to constitute a Reserve Bank for India to regulate the issue of bank notes and keeping of re-serves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage'. The main objectives of R B I may be stated as follows in specific terms:
(i) To maintain monetary stability such that the business and economic life of the country can deliver the welfaregains of a mixed economy,
(ii) To maintain financial stability and ensure sound financial institution so that economic units can conduct their business with confidence,
(iii) To maintain stable payment systems, so that financial transactions can be safely and efficiently executed,
(iv) To ensure that "credit allocation by the financial system broadly reflects the national economic priorities and social| concerns.
(v) To regulate the; overall volume of money and credit in the economy to ensure a reasonable degree of price stability.
(vi) To promote the development of financial market's and systems to enable 'itself to operate/regulate efficiently'.'
R B I'S MAIN FUNCTIONS
We will now discuss the essential functions of P.3I that help it to achieve the objectives mentioned above. These are as follows:
Notes Issuance
R B I has the sole authority for the issuance of currency notes and putting them into circulation, withdrawing them or exchanging them. R B I has issued-and put in circulation notes in the denomination of Rs l 2, 5, 10, 20, 50, 100. 500 and 1000, except Re. 1 notes and all coins, which are issued by the Government of India, but put into circulation by R B I. The R B I has about seventeen Issue Offices and above 4,000 currency chests where new and reissuable notes are stored- The currency chests are kept by various banking groups as agents of R B I. The R B I Group has over 2,800 currency chests. Nationalised banks have about 800, Treasuries about 420 and private sector banks have about 20 currency chests. As a cover for the notes issue,, R B I keeps a minimum, value of gold coin, bullion and foreign securities as a part of the total approved assets.
Government's Banker
R B I- acts as the banker to the Central and State Governments. As such, it provides them banking services of deposits, withdrawal of funds, making payments and receipts, collection and transfer of funds and management of public debt. Government deposits are received free of interest and R B I does not, Receive any remuneration for the routine banking business of the government. R B I also makes 'ways and means advance' to central and state' governments, subject to certain rules and limits on the amount of overdrafts with y view to contain the fiscal deficit as decided by the central government. R B I charges a commission for managing the public debt and interest on overdrafts from the concerned governments.
Bankers' Bank
Every central bank acts as a hankers" bank and so does R B I. The commercial banks and state cooperative banks which are scheduled banks (appearing in the second schedule of the R B I Act) have to keep stipulated reserves in cash and in approved securities as a percentage of their Demand and Time Liabilities (D T L). These reserves, as discussed in a later section, of this Unit, regulate the banks' ability to create credit and affect money supply in the economy. R B I also changes its Bank Rate to regulate the cost of bank credit and thereby its volume indirectly. R B I also acts as a lender of the last resort for banks by rediscounting bills and by refinance mechanism for certain kinds .of credit, subject to the conditions laid down in its Credit, :Policy announced by annually.
Bank's Supervision
From November 1993. R B I's banking supervisory function has been separated from its traditional central banking functions. The Board of Financial Supervision (BFS) was set up In 1994 to oversee the Indian Financial System, comprising not only commercial banks, state cooperative banks, but also the All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs) and Non-Banking Finance Companies (N B F Cs). The BFS has a full time vice-chairman and six other members, apart from the R B I Governor as its chairman.
R B I's supervisory powers over commercial banks are quite wide as mentioned below and. their objective is to develop a sound banking system in the country:
(i) To issue licences for new banks and new branches for the existing banks.
(ii) To prescribe, the minimum requirements for the paid-up capital and reserves, maintenance of cash reserves and other liquid assets.'
(iii) To inspect the working or the scheduled banks in India and abroad from all relevant angles to ensure their sound working.
(iv) To conduct ad hoc investigations into complaints, irregularities and frauds pertaining to the banks.
(v) To control appointments, reappointments, termination of Chairmen and CEOs of private banks.
(vi) To approve or force amalgamation or merger of two banks. The recent example is the merger of Global Trust Bank with Oriental Bank of Commerce, after the R B I's moratorium of the former in early 2004.
Development of the Financial System
This represents R B I's developmental role as against its regulatory and supervisory role over banks as mentioned above. R B I has created specialised financial institutions for:
(i) Industrial finance: Industrial Development Bank of India (1DBI) in 1964, Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) in 1989.
(ii) Agricultural credit: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in 1981.
(iii) Export-import finance: Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) in 1981.
(iv) Deposits Insurance Corporation of India in 1961. which later became Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (DICGC).
R B I has also initiated several schemes connected with various facets of banking which have significantly impacted the banking development in the country over the last five decades. Some of these are as follows:
(i) Bill Market Scheme of 1952 and 1970.
(ii) Lead Bank Scheme for backward districts development (1970s).
(iii) P.L. Tandon Committee on Inventory norms for Bank Credit, 1974.
(iv) Credit Authorisation Scheme (1960s).*
(v) Consortium Financing Scheme (1970s).*
(vi) Priority Sector Advances Scheme (discussed later in this Unit).
Note: The schemes marked with an asterisk (*) have been discontinued after the liberalisation since 1991.
R B I has also tried to integrate the large unorganised financial, sector (indigenous bankers, various kinds of non-banking finance companies etc.) into the organised financial system by regulating them to some extent. However, the task is so enormous and complex that it will take longer for R B I to have the desired integration of the two sectors, so as t6 work as a single, financial system in the country.
Exchange Control.
R B I is entrusted with the duty of maintaining the stability of the external value of the national currency - Indian Rupee, It used to regulate the foreign exchange market in the country in terms of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1947.(amended and enlarged in 1973). The FERA, 1973 has been replaced by the Foreign Exchange Management Act; 1999 (FEMA) and R B I is now guided by the provisions of the new Act. The R B I performs the following tasks:
(i) It administers foreign, exchange control through its .Exchange-Control Department. It authorises the batik's specified branches and other dealers, called Authorised Dealers (ADs) to deal in the prescribed kinds of foreign exchange transactions and issues the AD series of circulars for regulating such transactions.
(ii) It manages the exchange rate between the Indian Rupee and foreign currencies, by selling and buying foreign exchange to/from the Authorised Dealers and by other means.
(iii) It manages the foreign exchange reserves of the country and maintains reserves in gold and foreign securities issued by foreign governments and international financial institutions. Monetary Control The R B I controls the money supply, volume of bank credit and also cost of bank credit (via the Bank Rate) and thereby the overall money supply in the economy, Money supply change is a technique of controlling inflationary or deflationary situations in the economy, The R B I issues monetary policy for the country as the Ministry of Finance issues fiscal policy and the Ministry of Commerce issues the EXIM policy of the country from time to time. All these policies are among the important macroeconomic policies that influence various businesses in the country. R B I issues monetary and credit policies annually.
TOOLS OF MONETARY CONTROL
R B I uses its monetary policy for controlling inflationary or deflationary situations in the economy by using one or more of the following tools of monetary control. These are discussed below. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) It refers to the cash that all banks (scheduled and non-scheduled) are required to maintain with R B I as a certain percentage of their demand and time liabilities (D T L). As you know, demand liabilities of a bank represent its deposits which are payable on demand of the depositors (viz., current and savings deposits) and time liabilities refer to its time deposits which are repayable on the specified maturities. In order to meet these liabilities in time (i.e. to keep liquidity), a bank has to keep a' regulatory cash reserve with R B I (currently, it Js 6.5 per cent for scheduled commercial banks). If a bank fails to maintain the prescribed CRR at prescribed intervals, it has to pay penal interest on the shortfall by adjustment from the interest receivable on the balances with R B I. A cut in the CRR enhances loanable funds with banks and reduces their dependence on the call and term money market. This will bring down the call rates. An increase in CRR will squeeze the liquidity in the banking system and reduce their lending operations and the call rate will tend to increase.
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
It refers to the supplementary liquid reserve requirements of banks, in addition to CRR: SLR is maintained by all banks (scheduled and non-scheduled) in the form of cash in hand (exclusive of the minimum CRR), .current ..account balances with SBI .and other public sector commercial banks, unencumbered approved securities and gold. R B I can prescribe SLR from 0 per cent to. 40 per cent of bank's D T L (presently it is 24 per cent). SLR has three objectives:
- To restrict expansion of banks credit,
- To increase, banks investment .in approved: securities and .
- To ensure solvency of banks.
The effect of an increase in SLR by R B I is- the reduction in the lending capacity of banks by pre-empting a certain portion of their D T L for government or other approved securities. It has therefore a. deflationary impact on the econemy, not only by reducing the supply of loanable funds of banks, but also by Increasing the lending rates in the face of an increasing demand for bank credit. The reverse phenomena happens in case of a cut in SLR. Bank Rate
Bank Rate is the standard rate at which R B I is prepared to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other eligible commercial paper from banks. It is the basic cost of rediscounting and refinance facilities from R B I. The Bank' Rate is therefore used by R B I to affect the cost and availability of refinance and to change the loanable resources of banks and other financial institutions. Change in. the Bank Rate by, R B I affects the interest rates on loans and deposits, in the banking system across the board in the same direction, if not to the same extent. After deregulation and banking reforms since 1991. R B I has gradually loosened its direct regulation of deposit and lending rates and these are left to banks to decide through their boards, with only a few exceptions. However, R B I can still affect the interest rates via changes in its Bank Rate, whenever the situation of the economy warrants it.
Open Market Operations (OMOs)
This refers to sale or purchase of government securities (of Central or State governments or both) by R B I in the open market with a view to increase or decrease the liquidity in the banking system and thereby affect the loanable funds with banks. R B I can also alter the interest rate structure through its pricing policy for open market sale/purchase.
Selective Credit Control (SCC)
The R B I issues directives, under Sections 21 and 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, stipulating certain restrictions on bank advances against specified sensitive commodities as follows:
Pulses, other food grains (viz.. coarse grains), oilseeds, oils including vanaspati, all imported oil seeds and oils, sugar including imported sugar (excepting buffer stocks and unreleased stock of sugar with sugar mills). Gur and Khandsari, Cotton and Kapa's, Paddy/ Rice and Wheat.
R B I's objective in issuing Selective Credit Control (SCC) directives is to prevent speculative- holding of essential commodities and the resultant rise in their prices. R B I's general guidelines on SCC are:
(i) Banks should not allow customers dealing in SCC commodities any credit facilities (including against book debts/receivables or even collateral securities like insurance policies, shares, stocks and real estate) that would directly or indirectly defeat the purpose of the SCC directives.
(ii) Credit limits against each commodity covered by SCC directives should be segregated and the SCC restrictions be applied to each of such segregated limits.
Presently; only buffer stocks of sugar, unreleased stocks of sugar with sugar mills representing free sale sugar and levy sugar are covered by SCC directives.
OTHER TOOLS
R B I has used other tools of regulation in the past. However, after the liberalisation policy of 1991; most of these tools have since been discontinued and are no longer used by R B I.. These tools are:
- Credit Rationing/Allocation
- Credit Authorisation Scheme
- Credit Planning
- Inventory and Credit Norms REGULATORY RESTRICTIONS ON LENDING
There are certain regulatory restrictions on lending by banks in terms of R B I directives or the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (BRA) as follows:
(i) No advance or loan can be granted against the security of the bank's own shares or partly paid shares of a company.
(ii) No pank can hold shares in a company:
(a) As pledgee or mortgagee in excess of the limit of 30 per cent of the Paid-up capital of that company or 30 per cent of the Bank's Paid-up capital and Reserves, whichever is less (Sec.l9(ii) of BRA).
(b) in the management of which Managing Director or Manager of the Bank is interested (Sec. 19(iii) of BRA).
(iii) Bank's aggregate investment in shares, Certificate of Deposits (CDs), bonds, etc., should not exceed the limit of 40 per cent of Bank's net owned funds as at the end of the previous year.
(iv) No bank should grant loans against:
(a) CDs
(b) FQs issued by other banks
(c) Money Market Mutual Funds
(v) Bank should adhere to the R B I guidelines relating to the level of credit, margin and interest rate etc. for loans against the security of commodities covered by the Selective Credit Control Directives of R B I. No loan should be granted by banks to:
- The Bank's directors or firms in which a director is interested as a partner/manager/employee/ guarantor (certain exemptions allowed).
- Relatives of other bank's directors ('relatives' defined by R B I) - Such loans can be sanctioned by higher authorities or the Bank's Board as per R B I guidelines.
(vi) Banks should not sanction a new or additional facility to borrowers appearing in-R B I's list of "Willful Defaulters" for a period of 5 years from the date of publication of the list by R B I.
THEORIES OF INTEREST: AT A GLANCE
1.Interest is one of the four types of income, the others being rent, wages, and profit. Three elements can be distinguished in interest: (i) payment for the risk involved in making the loan; (ii) payment for the trouble involved; (iii) pure interest, that is a payment for the use of the money.
2.Supply-and-demand analysis explains the rate of interest as a price determined by the demand for money and the supply of loans.
3. According to Keynes, rate of interest is determined by liquidity preference or demand for money to hold and the supply of money. The theory is known as Liquidity Preference Theory. Interest is a reward for parting with liquidity for a specified period.
4. In two-asset economy the demand for money by the people depends upon how they decide to balance their portfolios between money and bonds.
5.The position of money demand curve depends upon two factors: (i) the level of nominal income, and (ii) the expectations about the changes in bond prices in the future which implies change in rate of interest in future.
6. Keynes asserted that it is not the rate of interest which equalizes saving and investment. But this equality is brought, about through changes in the level of income.
7. Hicks and Hansen have brought about a synthesis between the Classical and Keynes' theories of interest and have thereby succeeded in propounding an adequate and determinate theory of interest through the intersection of what are called IS and LM curves.
8. IS curve tells us what will be the various rates of interest at different levels of income, given the investment demand curve and a family of saving curves at different levels of income.
9. The IS curve and the LM curve relate the two variables: (i) income and (ii) the rate of interest. Intersection point of these two curves is the equilibrium rate of interest.
1. Select the one which is different from others:
(1) Rent
(2) Interest
(3) Wages
(4) Money
(5) Pay
2. According to J.M. Keynes rate of interest and bond prices are related
(1) Inversely
(2) Directly
(3) Parallel
(4) Horizontal
(5) None of these
3. Keynes explained interest in terms of purely
(1) Real forces
(2) Economic forces
(3) Monetary forces
(4) Social forces
(5) None of these
4. The initials LM stand for
(1) Liquidity Model
(2) Liquidity preference and Money supply equilibrium
(3) Liquidity and Money Model
(4) Liquidity and money
(5) None of these
5. IS curve is derived from.
(1) Classical theory
(2) Keynesian liquidity preference theory of interest
(3) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(4) Law of equimarginal utility
(5) None of these
6. LM curve is derived from
(1) Classical theory
(2) Keynesian liquidity preference theory of interest
(3) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(4) Law of equimarginal utility
(5) None of these
BUSINESS CYCLES: AT A GLANCE
1. Business cycle refers to economy-wide fluctuations in production or economic activity over several months or years.
2. Business cycle simply means the whole course of business activity which passes through the phases 'of prosperity and depression.
3. A business cycle is identified as a sequence of four phases, viz., recovery, boom, recession and depression.
7. Business Cycle is also known as
(1) Entrepreneur cycle
(2) Economic cycle
(3) Vicious circle
(4) Either (1) or (2)
(5) None of these
8. Select the one which is different from the other words:
(1) Boom
(2) Depression
(3) Slowdown
(4) Recovery
(5) Recession
9. Underemployment of both men and materials is a characteristic of which phase ?
(1) Depression (2) Boom
(3) Recover
(4) Recession
(5) None of these
10. Which phase of the business cycle is also known as the crisis ?
(1) Boom
(2) Depression
(3) Recovery
(4) Recession
(5) None of these
ECONOMIC REFORMS: AT A GLANCE
The reform process that began economic transformation since the early 1990s has been based on a broad political and intellectual consensus in the country that explains as to why there has never been any policy reversal since then. At times we have been accused to be slow in taking up reforms in certain sectors, but our stance with regard to pace and timing of reforms have been vindicated by our ability to ward off each of the crises that occurred in the global economy.
Transformation of the economy, which is discernible in the form of improved competitiveness, efficiency and productivity across all the sector's, has led the economy to a higher growth trajectory. Consequent shift in relative contribution of various sectors to national income, however, brought to fore the concerns for susceptibility of the transformation process and the need for an "inclusive growth'. This would require greater focus towards investment in the sectors namely, agriculture and allied activities, small and micro enterprises, and infrastructure. The use of technology to make available 'affordable' financial and banking services to the underprivileged sections of our society for achieving inclusive growth is also our noble but critical objective. Finally, economic transformation is an ongoing process that needs to be pursued with perseverance and consensus while keeping in view their aptness to the domestic economy. Let us hope that this process continues and gains pace in the coming years.
11. Reforms were started in
(1) 1981
(2) 1991
(3) 1971
(4) 1995
(5) None of these
12. Twin economic imbalances existed during 1990
(1) fiscal crisis and external payment crisis
(2) fiscal and monetary crisis
(3) monetary and external payment crisis
(4) Both (1) and (2) {5} None of these
13. Real Sector Policy measures mainly focused on the …….. in the early stages of reform process.
(1) Mining and quarrying
(2) Electricity
(3} Manufacturing sector
(4) Both (1) and [2]
(5) None of these
14. Expand ITES
(1) Information Technology and Electronic Services
(2) Information Technology and Enabled Services
(3) Information Technology and Efficient Services
(4) Industrial Technology and Enabled Services
(5) None of these
15. Expand WMA
(1) Wealth and Means Advances
(2) Wealth and Monetary Advances .
(3) Ways and Monetary Advances
(4) Ways and Means Advances.
(5) None of these
16. Expand NEFf
(1)Nominal Electronic Funds Transfer
(2) National Electronic Funds Transfer
(3) National Electronic Funds Transformation
(4) Net Electronic Funds Transfer
(5) None of these
MONETARY POLICY AND FISCAL POLICY: AT A GLANCE
2. Tools of Monetary Policy - Bank rate is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances that it extends to commercial banks and other financial intermediaries.
3. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the liquid cash that banks have to maintain with the Reserve Bank of India (R B I) as a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities.
4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio or SLR refers to the amount that all banks require maintaining in cash or in the form of Gold or approved securities. Presently it is 24 per cent.
5. Repo (Repurchase) rate is the rate at which the. R B I lends shot-term money to the banks. Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which banks park their short-term excess liquidity with the R B I.
6. Under the OMO, the R B I buys or cells government bonds in the secondary market.
7. In Economics, fiscal policy Is the use of government spending and revenue collection to influence the economy.
17. Bank rate is also referred to as
(1) Discount rate
(2) Subside rate
(3) Marginal rate
(4) Interest rate
(5) None of these
18. Expand CRR
(1) Credit Reference Rate
(2) Credit Reserve Ratio
(3) Cash Reserve Ratio
(4) Cash Reserve Rate
(5) None of these
19. Expand SLR
(1) Statutory Leverage Ratio
(2) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(3) Statutory Liquidity Rate
(4) Static Liquidity Ratio
(5) None of these
20. Expand OMO
(1) Open Market Operations
(2) Open Market Organisation
(3) Open Monetary Operations
(4) Open Monetary Organisation
(5) None of these
21. Expand FRBM Act
(1) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management Act
(2) Fiscal Role and Budget Management Act
(3) Fiscal Role and Business Management Act
(4) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
(5) None of these
22. FRBM Act enacted as law in
(1)2001
(2)2003
(3)2004
(4)2000
(5) None of these
PLAN EXPENDITURE; AT A GLANCE
Revenue Expenditure
1. Central Plan
2. Central Assistance for State & Union Territory Plans
Capital Expenditure
1. Central Plan
2. Central Assistance for State & Union Territory Plans
Plan Expenditure: Revenue Expenditure + Capital Expenditure
Total Expenditure: Total Non-Plan Expenditure + Total Plan Expenditure
Deficit Concepts
- Revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
- Gross fiscal deficit is the excess of total expenditure including loans, net of recoveries over revenue receipts (including external grans) and non-debt receipts.
- Net fiscal deficit is the difference between gross fiscal deficit and net lending.
- Gross primary deficit is the differences between the gross fiscal deficit and Interest payments.
- Net primary deficit denotes net fiscal deficit minus net interest payments.
- The net R B I credit to the Central Government is the sum of increase in the Reserve Bank's holding of (i) Treasury Bills, (ii) Government of India dated securities (iii) rupee coins and (iv) Loans and Advances from the Reserve Bank to centre since April 1, 1997 adjusted for changes in Centre's cash balances with the Reserve Bank.
1. Net Tax Revenue : Gross tax revenue: NCCD transferred to the National Calamity Contingency Fund (-) States' Share.
2. Total Revenue Receipts: Net Tax Revenue + Total Non-Tax Revenue:
3. Total Receipts : Total Revenue Receipts + Capital Receipts + Draw-Down of Cash Balance. 4. Total Expenditure: Total Non-Plan Expenditure + total Plan Expenditure.
23. Expand NCCD
(1) National Council on Crime and Delinquency
(2) National Council on Credit and Debentures
(3) National Council on Commercial and Deregulation
(4) National Credit Control and deregulation
(5) None of these
24. Net fiscal deficit is the difference between
(1) gross fiscal deficit and net interest payments
(2) gross fiscal deficit and interest payments
(3) gross fiscal deficit and net lending
(4) Both (I) and (2)
(5) None of these
CHALLENGES FACING INDIAN ECONOMY AT A GLANCE
1. Unique features of the Indian economy
- Growth is driven by domestic demand
- Twin deficits - fiscal as well as current account deficit.
- Supply-constrained economy.
2. Five concern areas.
- Timing of exit from the accommodative monetary policy in the context of rising food price-led inflation but still weak growth.
- The possibility of another surge in capital flows, especially if we turn out to be an outlier in withdrawal of monetary stimulus.
- Monetary transmission mechanism as it is evolving from the crisis period.
- Return to fiscal consolidation and quality of fiscal adjustment.
- The implications of the efforts towards financial stability on financial inclusion and growth.
25. Select the one which is different from the others:
(1) Brazil
(2) France
(3) India
(4) Russia
(5) Sri Lanka
26. Expand EMEs
(1) External Marketing Economics
(2) Environmental Efficiency
(3) Emerging Market Economies
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
27. Expand BPLRs.
(1) Benchmark Prime Lending Rates
(2) Benchmark Prime Loan Rates
(3) Benchmark Process Lending Rates
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. (4) Money
2. (1) Inversely
3. (3) Monetary forces
4. (2) Liquidity preference and Money supply equilibrium
5. (1) Classical theory
6. (2) Keynesian liquidity preference theory of interest
7. (2) Economic cycle
8. (3) Slowdown
9. (1) Depression
10. (4) Recession
11. (2) 1991
12. (1) fiscal crisis and external payment crisis
13. (3) Manufacturing sector
14. (2) Information Technology and Enabled Services
15. (4) Ways and Means Advances
16. (2) National Electronic Funds Transfer
17. (1) Discount Rate
18. (3) Cash Reserve Ratio
19. (2) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
20. (1) Open Market Operation
21. (4) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
22. (2) 2003
23. (1) National Council on Crime and Delinquency
24. (3) gross fiscal deficit and net lending
25. (2) France
26. (3) Emerging Market Economies
27. (1) Benchmark Prime Lending Rates
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ON BANKING INDUSTRY
1. The Business Correspondence Model being adopted by the banks provides Banking facilities to which of the following
(1) Only Corporate borrowers
(2) Only Weaker sections the society and people of small villages
(3) Only those who are taking housing loans
(4) All (I), (2) & (3) above
(5) None of these
2. Which of the following agencies/organizations in India maintains the Micro Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently ?
(1) Confederation of Industries in India (CII)
(2) Indian Bank's Association (IBA)
(3) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDED
(4) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(5) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
3. As per news in various newspapers 'kfw' Group released another instalment of its financial aid to India, kfw is an organisation/bank based in
(1) France
(2) Japan
(3) Italy
(4) China
(5) Germany
4. Which of the following agencies/organisations has decided to make major changes for ULIPs?
(1) IRDA
(2) RBI
(3) AMFI
(4) FRBI
(5) None of these
5. Which of the following is NOT a financial term?
(1) Acid Test
(2) Double Fault
(3) Gross Profit
(4) Depreciation
(5) Cash flow
6. In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in between is known as
(1) Double Deflation
(2) Deflation
(3) Deep Recession
(4) Double Dip Recession
(5) None of these
7. A consortium of commercial banks has joined hands to float a new company which will collect data related to frauds and security risks. Which of the following is the name of the company ?
(1) Loss Data Consortium
(2) Customer Service Corporation
(3) Bank net India Ltd.
(4) Nu Tech Corporate Services Ltd.
(5) None of these
8. As per newspaper reports the Bank of Japan, which is the Central Bank of the country, took special measures, first time in last six years, to contain the rise in the value of Yen. Why did Japan had to take this special measure which surprised many countries ?
(A) Japan was fearful that a rising currency would damage its export-led recovery plan.
(B) It was one of the measures taken by Japan to come out of its economic setback it suffered in the recent past.
(C) Since the US Dollar has became a Weak Global Currency, Japan wants the Yen to be recognized as the global currency in place of the US dollar.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) & (B)
(5) Only (B) & (C)
9. The Reserve Bank of India has set up a Working Group to review current operating procedure of monetary policy including 'LAF'. What Is fullform of' LAF ?
(1) Liquid Assets & Funds
(2) Liabilities And Funds
(3) Liabilities Adjustment Finance
(4) Liquidity And Finance
(5) Liquidity Adjustment Facility.-
10. Which of the following organizations/agencies plays a major and crucial role to moderate & control inflation in a country ?
(A) Central Bank of the country
(B) Stock Markets of the country
(C) Planning Commission of the country
(1) Only (B)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Both (A) & (B)
(4) Both (B) & (C)
(5) All (A),(B)&(C)
11. Many times we read about 'Balance of Payment' in economic literature. Which of the following statement(s) define the terni correctly ?
(A) It is a record of all transactions made between one particular country and all other countries.
(B) It is a record of all transactions made between the countries wherein the payment was made in a currency other than US Dollar.
(C) It is a record of all exports/imports- from/by a country and difference in amount of both in terms of payment in US dollars.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only(C)
(3) Only (B)
(4) Both (A) & (B)
(5) Only(B)&(C)
12. As per the existing policy the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of scheduled banks is fixed at a certain percentage of their NDTL. What is hill form of NDTL?
(1) New Demand & Tenure Liabilities
(2) Net Demand & Time Liabilities
(3) National Deposits & Total Liquidity
(4) Net Duration & Total Liquidity
(5) New Deposits and Term Liquidity
13. The Reserve Bank of India recently decided to review its monetary policy more frequently. This measure of the RBI will be called RBI's ….
(A) Monetary Measure
(B) Financial Market Measure
(C) Regulatory Measure
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) All (A). (B) &(C)
(4) Both (A)&(B)
(5) Only (C)
14. "Basel Committee on Banking Supervision'' is also /or popularly known as …..
(1) Thomas Cook Committee
(2) Talwar Committee
(3) Bank for International Settlements Committee
(4) Peter Cook Committee
(5) Banking Regulation Committee
15. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Foreign Trade Policy 2009-14*. which was reviewed by the Government recently ?
(A) Government, to increase exports upto US $ 200 billion this fiscal year.
(B) List of items allowed for duty-free imports reduced by 30%.
(C) Few towns like Banner, Bhiwandi and Agra were declared towns of Export Excellence.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (B) & (C)
(5) Only (A) & (C)
16. The Direct Tax Code which was revised recently will be implemented from which of the following dates ?
(1) April 2011
(2) April 2012
(3) January 2011
(4) January 2012
(5) None of these.
17. Government may reduce its budgetary deficit by various measures. Which of the following is NOT one such measure?
(1) Market borrowing
(2) Deficit financing
(3) Foreign grants
(4) Increasing taxes
(5) Reducing taxes and increasing subsidies
18. 'Commercial Papers' are Issued by …..
(1) a company to a bank
(2) Banks to Companies
(3) Banks to Banks
(4) Company to its suppliers
(5) None of these
19. MAT provision in Income Tax stands for ……..
(1) Medium Alternate Tax
(2) Maximum Alternate Tax
(3) Minimum Alternate Tax
(4) Mild Alternate Tax
(5) None of these
20. Many times we read about SWIFT in newspapers. What Is its full form ?
(1) Sound World wide Institution for Transactions
(2) Safe Window In case of Financial Transaction
(3) Society for World wide Interbank Financial Telecommunication
(4) Safe Window for Inter bank Financial Transactions
(5) None of these
21. In the world of commodity exchanges - the concept of "A standard contract to buy or sell a specified commodity at a certain date in future and at a market driven price" - is known as ….
(1) Future contract
(2) Forward contract
(3) Market contract
(4) Standard contract
(5) None of these
22. The foreign trade policy In India is announced by the
(1) Reserve Bank of India
(2) Ministry of Commerce
(3) FEDAI
(4) Ministry of Finance
(5) None of these
23. Lending to Self Help Groups (SHGs) by Banks is known as ……
(1) Non priority Sector
(2) Priority sector
(3) Commercial sector
(4) Corporate Sector
(5) None of these
24. Through which one of the following source(s). Indian companies are allowed to access funds from abroad?
(A) External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) only
(B) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs)/Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds only
(C) Preference Shares only.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) All (A).(B)&.(C)
(4) Only(A)&(C)
(5) Only (C)
25. While tackling the problem of inflation, which one of the following aspects is taken Into consideration by the RBI?
(1) Balance between budget deficit and price stability
(2) Balance between growth and financial stability
(3) Balance between price of all essential commodities
(4) Balance between growth, price stability and financial stability
(5) None of these
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. (4) All (1), (2) & above
2. (5) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
3. (5) Germany
4. (1) IRDA
5. (2) Doubt Fault
6. (4) Double Dip Recession
7. (1) Loss Data Consortium
8. (4) Only (A) & (B)
9. (5) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
10. (2) Only (A)
11. (1) Only (A)
12. (2) Net Demand & Time Liabilities
13. (3) All (A), (B) & (C)
14. (3) Bank for International Settlements Committee
15. (5) Only (A) & (C)
16. (2) April 2012
17. (5) Reducing taxes and increasing subsidies
18. (3) Banks to Banks
19. (3) Minimum Alternative Tax
20. (3) Society for World wide Interbank Financial Telecommunication
21. (1) Future Contract
22. (2) Ministry of Commerce
23. (2) Priority Sector
24. (3) All (A), (B) & (C)
25. (3) Balance between price of all essential commodities
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ON BANKING INDUSTRY
1. The public debt offices function under the control of:
(1) Central Government.
(2) Reserve Bank of India,
(3) Public Debt Ministry.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
2. Demand liabilities mean;
(1) liabilities which are payable within one year from the date of balance sheet.
(2) liabilities which must be met on demand.
(3) current and saving deposits.:
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
3. Bank rate policy, open market operations, variable reserve requirements and statutory liquidity requirements, as measures of credit control are classified as :
(1) Quantitative methods.
(2) Qualitative methods.
(3) Weighted average methods
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
4. The note issue system in India is based on:
(1) Gold Deposit System.
(2) Minimum Reserve System.
(3) Proportional Reserve System.
(4) Simple Deposit System.
5) None of these
5. The currency notes issued by RBI have a cent percent cover in :
(1) approved assets
(2)gold
(3) foreign exchange
(4) trustee securities
(5) None of these .
6. The approved assets against which currency note are issued by RBI, comprise of:
(1) gold coin and bullion and rupee coin.
(2) foreign securities and rupee securities of Government of India, of any maturity.-
(3) bills of exchange and promissory notes payable 'in India which are eligible for purchase by RBI.
(4) All of the above
(3) None of these
7. The Board for Financial Supervision has a term of:
(1) One year
(2) Two years
(3) Ten years
(4) No time limit
(5) None of these
8. The Board for Financial Supervision will exercise integrated supervision over:
(1) Commercial Banks.
(2) Financial Institutions.
(3) Non-Banking Financial Intermediaries and other para- banking financial institutions.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of these
9. Retail Banking refers to:
(1) provision of the basic services of a bank to the individuals.
(2) credit facilities provided to retail traders, departmental shares etc.
(3) collection and payments of large number of dividend warrants, interest warrants and refund orders.
(4) salary distribution of a large organisation.
(5) All of the above
10. Which of the following would fall under the categery of retail banking?
(1) Personal loans to individuals.
(2) Vehicle loans.
(3) Home loans.
(4) Credit cards.
(5) All of the above.
11. The term 'Retail Banking1 means:
(1) providing services to Individuals.
(2) focusing on individuals needs for different kinds of financial services
3) in an integrated manner.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of these
12. What are the various segments of Retail Banking?
(1) Deposit products (i.e., convenient deposit, schemes such as Fixed deposit. Auto-sweep Reverse sweep schemes etc.).
(2) Loan products lie., loan for conveyance, loan for housing, education and personal loan etc.)
(3) Value added services (i.e.. free collection of out station cheques, issue of free ATM/ Debit/Credit Cards).
(4) Utility services lie., payment of water, telephone, electricity bills etc.)
(5) All of the above.
13. Which of the followings does not come in the purview of Retail Banking?
(1) Advances to traders.
(2) Advances to small scale units.
(3) Financing of weaker sections of the society.
(4) Loan syndicate.
(5) None of these
14. Whole Sale Banking refers to the borrowing and lending funds of:
(1) Government department or agencies.
(2) Other banks.
(3) Big industrial houses.
(4) Large domestic and International companies!
(5) All of the above.
15. The quantum of loan under Home loan Is decided on the basis of:
(1) Income of the. borrower.
(2) dost of the property/cost of construction.
(3) Repaying capacity of the person,
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of these
16. Which of the following is correct statement in respect of debit cards?
(1) Debit card facility is provided to those having savings bank account/ current account/ fixed deposit accounts of individuals, firms and coorporates.
(2) This facility is not extended to cash credit/loan account holders.
(3) Debit card is issued to all the persons who visit the branch.
(4) Only (1) and (2)
(5) All of the above.
17. Sources of funds which do not appear in the balance sheet and consequently not owned by the entity are known as :
(1) off balance sheet business
(2) current assets
(3) contingent liabilities
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
18. Which of the following is an example of off balance sheet finance?
(1) Accommodation Bill
(2)WCTL
(3) Financial loans
(4) intangible assets
(5) Goodwill
10. Which is the correct statement in regard to off balance sheet fl-. nance?
(1)11 represents the time liabilities.
(2) It represents the funds Invested in subsidiary/holding companies.
(3)It,represents the claims not admitted as debts.
(4) As there Is no capital outlay, there Is no reduction In working control.
(5) All of the above.
20. What is International Banking?
(1) Providing of variety of financial services to the customers who are living outside their home country.
(2) Providing of financial services to the customers who are living in home country.
(3) Banking between two countries.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
21. Who has issued guidelines for know your customer (KYC) principle?
(1) Reserve Bank of India.
(2) Government of India.
(3) Indian Bank's Association.
(4) United Forum of Bank Employees.
(5) All of the above.
22. The Guidelines of the KYC principle are to put in place, the systems and procedures by the banks:
(1) to help to control financial frauds.
(2) to Identify money laundering and suspicious activities.
(3) to scrutinise/monitoring of large value cash transactions.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of these
23. The important objectives of the Know-Your-Customer (KYC) framework are to:
(1) prevent the banks from being used, intentionally or unintentionally, by criminal elements for money laundering activities.
(2) enable banks to know/understand their customers and their financial dealings In better way, which in turn help them to manage their risks prudently,
(3) Both (1) and (2).
(4) restrict entry of general public for banking services
(5) None of these
24. KYC guidelines have been revised by Reserve Batik of India on the basis of recommendations made by :
(1) Rangrajan Committee.
(2) Financial Action Task Force , (FATF) oh Anti Money Laundering (AML) standards and on Combating Financing of Terrorism (CFT).
(3) Narasimham Committee.
(4) Gupta Committee.
(5) Narayanmurthy Committee.
25. Which of the following are deemed as suspicious activities/transactions to be monitored by the bank staff under KYC norms ?
(1) Same funds being .moved re-. peatedly: among several accounts. .
(2) Multiple deposits of Bankers cheques, drafts etc. of third parties.
(3) Maintaining a low or overdrawn balance with high activities.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of these
26. A letter of thanks Is sent to introducer :
(1) for confirmation of his action and indirectly providing him a chance to.inform the bank if his signature has been forged.
(2) as a matter of courtesy.
(3) so that he can introduce more and more accounts/customers to the bank.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these.
27. An introducer is not liable for the acts of the customer whose account is so introduced unless:
(1) the customer turns out to be a fictitious one.
(2) the Introducer is a party to the conspiracy of fraud
(3) the customer has done criminal act.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of these.
28. While opening new accounts, banks generally insist for cash as Initial deposit because :
(1) it is a banking practice.
(2) It is safe.
(3) It Is required under Section 42 of the Reserve Bank of India Acti 1935.
(4) If a cheque or draft Is accepted as initial depositfor opening of an account, protection under Section 13l"of the Negotiable Instruments Act. 1881 may not be available.
(5) None of these
29. Interest free, deposits can be accepted by the banks only under the head :
(1) Savings Bank Accounts
(2) Current Accounts
(3) term or time Deposits
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
30. Which of the following statements in regard to rate of interest on deposit Is correct ?
(1) Rate of interest on savings accounts are prescribed by Reserve Bank of India.
(2) Banks are free to offer interest rates on deposits of any maturity above 15 days.
(3) Banks are free to offer a fixed rate or a floating rate on term deposits.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of these
31. Current deposits fall under:
(l)Time Liability
(2) Demand Liability
(3) Contingent Liability
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
32. Savings accounts may be opened for :
(1) Institutions, other than those specially prohibited under rule 5 of IBA code for Banking practice, whose entire income is exempted from the payment of income tax under the Income Tax Act. 1961.
(2) Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA).
(3) Companies which have been licensed by the central government under Section 25 of the Companies Act, not to add to their names the word 'Limited' or Private Limited.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
33. Which of the following organisations is prohibited by RBI from opening a savings account ?
(1) Any trading or business concern, irrespective of their constitution.
(2) Municipal Corporations or Municipal Committees and Metropolitan Development Authority.
(3) State Housing Board State/District Level Housing Co-operative Societies, Water and Sewerage/Drainage Boards.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
34. The number of withdrawals in a sayings account are .allowed to the extent of:
(1) 50 in a half year
(2) 100 in a half year
(3) 150 in a year
(4) 10 per week
(5) None of these
35. Which statement is correct in respect of savings accounts ?
(1) Cheques endorsed to the account holder are not to be collected.
(2) Cheques endorsed to the account holder can be collected if the account is properly Introduced.
(3) Cheques endorsed are collected without any reservation.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
36. In terms of Rule 14 of IBA Code for Banking Practice, banks may accept time deposit for more than 10 years:
(1) in terms of orders of competent courts.
(2) in the case of minors where interest of minors are involved provided bank's convinced that it is necessary to do so.
(3) in their judgement based on asset liability management policies.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
37. Which of the following privileges, a current account holder enjoys?
(1)There is no need to maintain cash balances.
(2) Operate the account on as many occasions as required.
(3) Pay small charges for all these services.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
38. What are the various modes for remittance of funds from one place to another?
(1) Demand Draft
(2) Mail Transfer
(3) Telegraphic Transfer
(4) Electronic Fund Transfer
(5) All of these
39. While., making a remittance, the Instrument is handed over to the remitter, in case of:
(1) Telegraphic Transfer
(2) Mail Transfer
(3) Demand Draft
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
40. Demand drafts are issued payable to order as demand drafts payable to bearer are:
(1) not issued as they are prohibited under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
(2) issued at the specific request of important customers.
(3) issued for government departments.
(4) Issued by banks, in case of urgency of funds
(3) None of these
41. As per present guidelines of Reserve Bank of India, mail transfers, telegraphic transfers and traveller's cheques for Rs. 50.000 and above should be issued by banks:
(1) only by debit to the customer's account or against cheques or other instruments tendered by the purchaser and not against cash deposit.
(2) against tender of cash.
(3) either against cash or against cheques.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
42. Under the provisions of Income Tax Rules 1962, it is necessary to quote Permanent Account N umber (PAN) or furnish a declaration in Form No. 60 or Form 61 if a person desires to purchase during any one day, bank draft or pay order or banker's cheque for an amount aggregating to:
(l) Rs. 10.000/-
(2) Rs. 25,000/-
(3) Rs. 50.000/-(4)Rs. 1,00,000/
(5) None of these
43. Before cancelling a demand draft at the request of purchaser, issuing branch, should ensure that the draft does not bear any evidence of:
(1) Negotiation .
(2) Utilisation of draft .
(3) Delivery of draft
(4) Forgery
(5) None of these
44. A demand draft was reported lost and therefore, duplicate was issued against usual indemnity etc. Now, the original as well as the duplicate drafts are presented through clearing by two different banks bearing usual clearing stamps; As a department officer, how would you handle the situation ?
(1) Both the drafts should be paid.
(2) Original should be paid and duplicate has to return unpaid with the remark original since paid.
(3) The original should be returned with the remarks Draft reported lost will pay on collecting bank's guarantee" and if it is again presented bearing collecting bank's guarantee for disbursement, the same should be paid by invocation of indemnity.
(4) Both should be returned..
(5) None of these
45. A Telegraphic Transfer can be paid:
(1) in cash, across the counter after proper identification.
(2) to the credit of beneficiary's account-
(3) through special clearing-
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
46. A committee of Indian Bank's Association, which has examined the procedure for issue and payment of demand drafts by banks was headed by:
(1) Deshpande PS
(2) M Narasimham
(3) Janki Raman S
(4) Raghunath Singh
(5) None of these
47. While accepting articles for safe custody, the banker-customer relationship is of :
(1) Bailee and Bailor
(2) Trustee and Beneficiary
(3) Bailor and Bailee
(4) Debtor and Creditor
(5) None of the above
48. The transaction of keeping articles in safe custody is governed by:
(1) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
(2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
(3) Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these.
49. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to nomination facility for their depositors ?
(I) Nomination facility is available to existing as well as new depositors.
(2) Nomination can be made in favour of one person only.
(3) Nomination facility is available for accounts standing in the names of individuals In the single name or joint names.
(4) All of the above.
(5) None of these
50. As per Nomination Rules, nomination in favour of non-residents:
(1) is not-permitted at all.
(2) is permitted subject to prior approval of Reserve Bank of India.
(3) is permissible ; authorised dealers may credit the amount standing to the credit of a deceased person to the non-resident (ordinary) account with out the prior permission of the Reserve Bank of India.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of theses
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. (2) Reserve Bank of India,
2. (2) liabilities which must be met on demand.
3. (1) Quantitative methods.
4. (2) Minimum Reserve System.
5. (1) approved assets.
6. (4) All of the above,
7. (2) Two years
8. (4) All of the above.
9. (1) provision of the basic services of a bank to the Individuals.
10. (5) All of the above.
11. (4) All of the above.
12. (5) All of the above.
13. (4) Loan syndicate.
14. (5) All of the above.
15. (4) All of the above.
16. (4) Only (1) and (2)
17. (1) off balance sheet business
18. (3) Financial loans
19. (4) As there is no capital outlay, there is no reduction in working control.
20. (1) Providing of variety of financial services to the customers who are living outside their home country.
21. (3) Indian Bank's Association.
22. (4) All of the above.
23. (3) Both(1 land (2).
24. (2) Financial Action Task Force (FATF) on Anti Money Laundering (AML) standards and on Combating Financing of Terrorism (CFT).
25. (4) All of the above.
26. (1) for confirmation of his action and indirectly providing him a chance to inform the bank if his signature has been forged.
27. (1) the customer turns out to be a fictitious one.
28. (4) if a cheque or draft is accepted as initial deposit for opening of an account, protection under Section 131 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 may not be available.
29. (2) Current Accounts
30. (4) All of the above.
31. (2) Demand Liability
32. (4) All of the above
33. (4) All of the above
34. (1) 50 in a half year
35. (1) Cheques endorsed to the account holder are not to be collected.
36. (4) All of the above
37. (4) AH of the above.
38. (5) All of the above
39. (3) Demand Draft
40. (1) not issued as they are prohibited under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
41. (1) only by debit to the customer's account or against cheques or other instruments tendered by the purchaser and not against cash deposit.
42. (3) Rs. 50.000/-
43. (1) Negotiation
44. (3) The original should be returned with the remarks "Draft reported lost, will pay on collecting bank's guarantee" and if it is again presented bearing collecting bank's guarantee for disbursement, the same should be paid by invocation of indemnity.
45. (4) All of the above
46. (1) Deshpande PS
47. (1) Bailee and Bailor
48. (3) Indian Contract Act. 1872.
49. (4) All of the above.
50. (3) is permissible ; authorised dealers may credit the amount standing to the credit of a deceased person to the non-resident (ordinary) account with out the prior .permission of the Reserve Bank of India.
Objective Questions:
Questions
1. The Government has proposed to maintain raising funds limit of Rs…from disinvestment in 2011 to 12.
Answer
Rs. 40000 Crores. Current year expectation is Rs. 22144 Crores from the target of Rs. 40000 Crores.
2. Who is the chairman of the financial sector legislative reforms commission. It would rewrite and streamline the financial sector laws, rules and regulations.
Answer
Justice B N Srikrishna
3. In order to maintain growth and achieve scale and efficiency in operations, the government has proposed in the budget 2011 to 12 to create…fund.
Answer
India Microfinance Equity Fund" of Rs. 100 Crores.
4. To empower women and promote their self help groups (SHGs), a…fund is proposed to be created in the budget 2011 to 12.
Answer
Women's 5HG Development Fund.
5. How much is provided towards development of infrastructure sector in the budget 2011 to 12
Answer
Rs. 2,14,000 Crores
6. An amount of Rs… is proposed to provided towards re-capitalisation of Public sector banks in the year 2011 to 12.
Answer
Rs. 6000 Crores
7. Which is the largest administrative exercise for providing statistical data on different socio¬economic parameters of population in the country.
Answer
Census (15th Census in the country is being conducted from 9th February.)
8. The income tax exemption limit for general category of individuals is proposed to be enhanced for the year 2011 to 12 to
Answer
Rs. 1,60,000.00
9. For senior citizen, the age limit has been reduced from the present 65 to
Answer
60 years
10. The exemption limit is proposed to be enhanced for senior citizen category from the current Rs. 2,40,000
Answer
Rs. 2,50,000
11. The surcharge in the case of domestic companies is proposed to be amended from the current limit of 7.5% to...
Answer
5%
12. The service tax on domestic air travel (economy class) is proposed to be enhanced from Rs. 100 to…
Answer
Rs. 200
13. NBFCs have been asked to make provision of…% from the financial year 2011 to 12 on standard assets.
Answer
0.25 %( Till now NBFCs were not making provisions in the standard assets)
14. What is core investment companies?
Answer
Core Investment Companies are those companies which have their assets predominantly as investments in shares for holding stake in group companies but not for trading and also do not carry on any other financial companies.
15. In order to check misuse of ATM cards by unauthorized people, RBI has asked banks to amend the existing rules to
Answer
Allow only one transaction for one entry of PIN which acts like a password for ATM transactions.
16. The commodity markets regulator forward markets commission (FMC) has approved futures training... This will be the world's first iron ore futures contract, whereby traders, miners and importers are expected to participate in a big way.
Answer
IRON ORE
17. Who has been recently appointed as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
Answer
Mr. Anand Sinha. He is the fourth Deputy Governors.
18. What is J curve?
Answer
A theory stating that a country's trade deficit will worsen initially after the depreciation of its currency because higher prices on foreign imports will be greater that the reduced volume of imports.
19. Advance Measurement approach means:
Answer
The advance measurement approach is a set of operational risk measurement techniques proposed under Basel-II capital adequacy rules for banking institutions. Under this approach the banks are allowed to develop their own empirical model to quantify required capital for operational risk. Bank can use this approach only subject to approval from their regulator.
20. As per the RBI appointed Malegan committee recommendations, an interest cap of… % is to be set on loans to individuals by MFIs.
Answer
24%
21. To further stimulate growth in the housing sector, the Govt has proposed in the budget to extend interest subvention of …% to housing loans upto a limit of Rs. …lacs where the cost of the house is ... lacs.
Answer
Rs. 15 lacs , Rs. 25 lacs.
22. In urban areas, as per budget 2011 to 12, housing loans limits under priority sector for dwelling units is proposed to be enhanced to …
Answer
Rs. 25 lacs.
23. Government has proposed to enhance the provision for rural housing fund to Rs. …Crores
Answer
Rs. 3000 Crores from present Rs. 2000 Crores.
24. How much is proposed to be provided for financial strengthening RRBs in 2011 to 12.
Answer
Rs. 500 Crores
25. The economic survey for the year 2010 to 11 was presented in the Lok sabha by the finance minister on
Answer
25th February 2011
Sample question Paper 1
1. RBI's open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate.
1) Liquidity in the economy
2) Prices of essential commodities
3) Inflation
4) Borrowing power of the banks
5) All of these
2. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in co-ordination with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known
1) Participation
2) Consortium
3) Syndication
4) Multiple banking
5) None of these
3. Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy, means
1) Sale or purchase of Government, securities
2) Issuance of different types of bonds
3) Auction of gold
4) To make available direct finance to borrowers
5) None of these
4. The bank rate means
1) Rate of the interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
2) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers
3) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
4) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
5) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
5. What is an Indian Depository Receipt?
1) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
2) A depository account with any of Depositories in India
3) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
4) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
5) None of these
6. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold, stocks, etc) is known as
1) Derivative
2) Securitisation Receipts
3) Hedge Fund
4) Factoring
5) Venture Capital Funding
7. Fiscal deficit is
1) Total income less Government borrowing
2) Total payments less total receipts
3) Total payments less capital receipts
4) Total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
5) None of these
8. In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to
1) Purchase of securities to cover the sale
2) Sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase
3) Simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price
4) Variation in different markets
5) Any of the above
9. Reverse repo means
1) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Government, securities
2) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Government, securities
3) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhance economic growth rate
4) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market
5) Any of these
10. The stance of RBI monetary policy is
1) Inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
2) Improving credit quality of the Banks
3) Strengthening credit delivery mechanism
4) Supporting investment demand in the economy
5Any of these
11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage
1) Currency risk
2) Interest rate risk
3) Currency and interest rate risk
4) Cash flows in different currencies
5) All of these
12. "Sub-prime" refers to
1) lending done by banks at rates below PLR
2) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates
3) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Banker's Almanac
4) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards
5) All of these
13. Euro Bond is an instrument
1) issued in the European market
2) issued in Euro Currency
3) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
4) All of these
5) None of these
14. Money Laundering normally involves
1) placement of funds
2) layering of funds
3) integration of funds
4) All of (1) , (2) and (3)
5) None of(1) , (2) and (3)
15. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to
1) Strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy
2) IMF promotes international monetary co-operation
3) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction
4) All of (1) , (2) and (3)
5) None of (!) , (2) and (3)
16. Capital Market Regulator is
1) RBI
2) IRDA
3) NSE
4) BSE
5) SEBI
17. In the term BRICS, R stands for
1) Romania
2) Rajithan
3) Russia
4) Regulation
5) None of these
18. FDI refers to
1) Fixed deposit Interest
2) Fixed Deposit Investment
3) Foreign Direct Investment
4) Future Derivative Investment
5) None of these
19. What is Call Money?
1) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
2) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
3) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
4) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days
5) None of these
20. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ?
1) Reliance
2) TCS
3) HCL
4) Infosys
5) None of these
21. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India?
1) RBI
2) SBI
3) SIDBI
4) SEBI
5) None of these
22. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda ?
1) JuhiChawla
2) Kiran Bedi
3) Amitabh Bachchan
4) Kapil Dev
5) None of these
23. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is .
1) International Bank of India
2) India’s International Bank
3) India's Multinational Bank
4) World's Local Bank
5) None of these
24. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as .
1) Sun of Bank of Baroda
2) Baroda Sun
3) Bank of Baroda's Rays
4) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda
5) None of these
25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the exports of China which is a close competitor of India ?
(A) China's economic success is basically on the fact that it exports cheaper goods to rich nations like USA, etc.
(B)) In the year 2007 China's exports became almost 40% of its GDP.
(C) When compared to India, China's share in the World Exports is more than 30% whereas India's share is mere 6% of the global exports
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) All A, B and C
5) None of these
26. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ?
1) Know your Customer Norms
2) Banking Regulation Act
3) Negotiable Instruments Act
4) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
5) None of these
27. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers. What is the full form of 'M' in 'M-Banking’?
1) Money
2) Marginal
3) Message
4) Mutual Fund
5) Mobile Phone
28. Which of the following is/are true about the "Sub-Prime Crisis”? (The term was very much in news recently)
(A) It is a mortgage crisis referring to Credit default by the borrowers
(B) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers
(C) This crisis originated because negligence in credit rating of the borrowers
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) All A, B and C
5) None of these
29. Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the Financial System in India ?
1) Induatrial Finance
2) Agricultural Finance
3) Government Finance
4) Development Finance
5) Personal Finance
30. Which of the following is not the part of the scheduled banking structure in India ?
1) Money Lenders
2) Public Sector Banks
3) Private Sector Banks
4) Regional Rural Banks
5) State Co-operative Banks
31. As we all know Government of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Government?
(A) Tax on Income
(B) Tax on Expenditure
(C) Tax on property or Capital Asset
(D) Tax on Goods and Services
1) Both A and C only
2) Both B and D only
3) All A, B, C and D
4) Only B, C and D
5) None of these
32. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives?
(A) To attract foreign investment directly.
(B) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals.
(C) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) All A, B and C
5) None of these
33. Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global emission of carbon every year ?
1) USA, China, India, South Africa
2) India, China, Russia, Britain
3) South Africa, Nepal, Myanmar
4) USA, Russia, China and India
5) None of these
34. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of "Nuclear Bank" floated by International Atomic Energy Agency ?
(A) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly.
(B) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium.
(C) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the nations.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and C only
4) Only C
5) Both A and B
35. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is 'Future Trading’?
(A) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges where in it is decided to purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year.
(B) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the future at a predetermined price.
(C) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) All A, B and C
5) None of these
36. Inflation of India is measured on which of the following indexes / indicators?
1) Cost of Living Index (COLI)
2) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
3) Gross Domestic Product
4) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
5) None of these
37. As per the reports published in the newspapers a section of society staged a demonstration at the venue of the G-8 Summit recently. What was/were the issues towards which these demonstrators were trying to draw the attention of G-8 leaders?
(A) Food shortage which has taken 50 million people in its grip.
(B) Inflation which has gone up substantially across the Globe.
(C) USA's consistent presence in Iraq.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Both A and B only
5) None of these
38. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA?
1) George Bush
2) Barack Obama
3) John McCain
4) Bill Clinton
5) None of these
39. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the
1) President of congo
2) Prime Minister of Uganda
3) President of Venezuela
4) Prime Minister of Brazil
5) None of these
40. The Government of India has raised the amount of the Loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly
1) Rs. 60,000 crores
2) Rs. 65,000 crores
3) Rs. 72,000 crores
4) Rs. 76,000 crores
5) Rs. 80,000 crores
41. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation that next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next Census due?
1) 2010
2) 2011
3) 2012
4) 2013
5) 2015
42. The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same?
1) Tobacco
2) Alcoholic drinks
3) Junk food
4) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives
5) None of these
43. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims?
1) Japan
2) South Korea
3) China
4) South Korea
5) None of these
44. India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of variousrivers. Which of the following rivers is not covered under these agreements?
1) Kosi
2) Gandak
3) Ganga
4) Mahakali
5) All these rivers are covered
45. Which of the following names is not closely associated with space programme of India or any other country?
1) CARTOSAT
2) NLS-5
3) RUBIN-8
4) GSLV
5) SCOPE
46. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of
1) Hockey
2) Cricket
3) Badminton
4) Football
5) Golf
47. Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic Torch?
1) Journey of Harmony
2) Green World Clean World
3) Journey of Peace
4) Journey for Hunger-free World
5) None of these
48. Which of the following schemes is not a social development scheme ?
1) Indira Awas Yojana
2) Mid Day Meal
3) Bharat Nirman Yojana
4) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
5) All are social schemes
49. Which of the following Awards is given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
1) Kalinga Prize
2) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
3) Arjun Award
4) Pulitzer Prize
5) None of these
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 3
6. 1
7. 4
8. 3
9. 2
10. 1
11. 4
12. 4
13. 3
14. 4
15. 4
16. 5
17. 3
18. 3
19. 1
20. 4
21. 4
22. 5
23. 2
24. 2
25. 3
26. 5
27. 5
28. 4
29. 5
30. 5
31. 3
32. 4
33. 4
34. 2
35. 2
36. 4
37. 1
38. 2
39. 3
40. 3
41. 2
42. 1
43. 3
44. 3
45. 5
46. 2
47. 1
48. 3
49. 4
50. 3
Sample Question Paper 2
1. 'ASHA' is a scheme of the Government of India operated in the area of
a) drip irrigation
b) universal education programme
c) infrastructural development
d) health and family welfare
2. Which of the following is not the function of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
a) Provide credit facility to the general public
b) Keep government money in various account heads
c) Keep Foreign Exchange Reserves of the country in safe custody
d) Frame Monetary and Credit Policy
e) All are RBI's functions
3. Which of the following policies/agreements/accords is closely associated with the reform in Banking Industry ?
a) Doha Accord
b) Basel Accord
c) Look East Policy
d) Geneva framework
e) All of these
4. Which of the following organizations has the privilege of issuing Bank Notes (Currency) in India ?
a) All Nationalised Banks
b) State Bank of India
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) New Note Printing Press in India
e) None of these
5. The 45-member Nuclear Suppliers Group recently agreed to lift a 34-year old nuclear trade embargo on which of the following countries to enable it to resume nuclear commerce with the rest of the world ?
a) Iraq
b) Pakistan
c) Iran
d) India
e) North Korea
6. Which of the following countries has allowed Foreign Direct Investment from India for the first time in the history of the country?
a) Afghanistan
b) Nepal
c) Pakistan
d) Israel
e) Ghana
7. The scheme to distribute food grain and oil etc., to the poor in the country at a subsidized rate is generally known
a) Village Grain Bank Scheme
b) Emergency Feeding programme
c) National Food For Work Programme
d) Midday Meal Scheme
e) Public Distribution System
8. In banking world when a loan given by a bank to an individual or organization is not returned by the borrower wishfully or otherwise, it is known as
A) Standard Asset
B) Non-Performing Asset
C) Over Draft
a) Only (A)
d) Both (A) & (B) only
b) Only (B) c) Only (C)
e) None of these
9. If an individual residing in a rural area wishes to get a guaranteed 100 days employment in Governor sector, he/she can get it through
a) Pradhan Mantri Gram Rozgar Yojana
b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
c) Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
d) Antyodaya Yojana
e) Any one of these
10. Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank in India?
a) Accepting deposits from public
b) Lending money to public
c) Keeping valuables in safe custody
d) Transferring money from one place to the other
e) Selling National saving Certificates
11. Which of the following awards was given to Prakash and Mandakini Amte recently ?
a) Ramon Magsaysay Award
b) Booker Prize
c) Kalidas Samman
d) Bajaj Award
e) None of these
12. Abhinav Bindra is a famous
a) Social worker
b) Film star
c) Sports personality
d) Journalist
e) Politician
13. Which of the following programmes is not a programme for the social sector?
a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
b) lntegratedChild Development Scheme
c) National Rural Health Mission
d) Midday Meal Scheme
e) Bharat Nirman
14. The small car launched by Tata's is known as
a) Primo
b) Alto c) Sumo
d) Octavio
e) Nano
15. Who amongst the following won the Junior Asia Cup Hockey played in Hyderabad in July 2008
a) Sri Lanka
b) Pakistan
c) India
c) South Korea
e) None of these
16. The overflow of which of the following major rivers from Nepal flooded some parts of Bihar recently ?
a) Ghagra
b) Sone
c) Gandak
d) Kosi e) None of these
17. Which of the following is not a food crop?
a) Maize
b) Cotton
c) Barley
d) Wheat
e) Rice
18. The Government of India has implemented which of the following concepts/schemes particularly to ensure that all the schemes get enough budgetary support for women welfare ?
a) Gender Budgeting
b) Food for work
c) Providing Urban Facilities in Rural Areas (PURA)
d) Look East Policy e) None of these
19. Which of the following is grown on mountain slopes only ?
a) Wheat
b) Paddy
c) Tea
d) Sugarcane
e) Bajra
20. Which of the following is not one of the departments of the Ministry of Finance in India ?
a) Economic Affairs
b) Expenditure c) Revenue
d) Social justice
e) Disinvestment
21. Teachers Day is celebrated on the Birthday of
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) S. Radhakrishnan
c) Rajendra Prasad
d) Indira Gandhi
e) Mahatma Gandhi
22. The Head Office of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is situated in
a) London
b) New York
c) Vienna
d) Taipei
e) Seoul
23. The Government of India has created a special fund of Rs. 70,000 crore to help which of the following sections of the society, who is in distress at present ?
a) Medical Practiotioners posted in rural areas
b) Primary Teachers
c) Farmers
d) Child Labour
e) None of these
24. Which of the following is a Banking Term ?
a) Blue Book
b) Embargo
c) Real Time Gross Settlement
d) Writ e) Blockade
25. Rafael Nadal who won his first Wimbeldon title recently is a
a) Badminton Player
b) Table Tennis player
c) Golfer
d) Lawn Tennis Player
e) Rifle shooter
ANSWERS
Question numbers Answers
1. b
2. a
3. c
4. c
5. d
6. c
7. e
8. b
9. b
10. e
11. a
12. c
13. e
14. e
15. c
16. d
17. b
18. a
19. c
20. d
21. b
22. c
23. c
24. d
25. d
End of the book
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